UPSC Prelims 2025 Question and Answer Explanation-Q1 to 100

Statement 1: Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs)
• Are Full battery electric vehicles considered alternative vehicles?
Yes, they are.
• Explanation:
Full battery electric vehicles run entirely on electricity stored in rechargeable batteries. They do not use conventional fossil fuels like petrol or diesel. Since alternative vehicles are defined as vehicles using non-conventional energy sources or technologies different from internal combustion engines (ICEs), BEVs fall squarely in this category.
• Environmental Significance: These vehicles produce zero tailpipe emissions, contributing to reduced air pollution and lower greenhouse gas emissions when charged with renewable energy sources.
• Supporting Source: The Government of India’s Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME) Scheme promotes the use of electric vehicles (EVs) as alternative transport modes (Department of Heavy Industry, Govt. of India).

Statement 2: Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCVs)
• Are Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles considered alternative vehicles?
Yes, they are.

• Explanation: Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles use hydrogen gas to generate electricity through an electrochemical reaction in fuel cells, emitting only water vapor. This is a clean alternative to fossil fuels. Since hydrogen is not a fossil fuel and fuel cell propulsion is fundamentally different from traditional combustion engines, these vehicles qualify as alternative vehicles.
• Environmental Significance: They emit zero harmful emissions, thus helping in reducing air pollution and carbon footprint. The fuel source—hydrogen—can be produced via renewable energy (green hydrogen).
• Supporting Source: NCERT Class 12 Chemistry textbook (Chapter 2: Hydrogen) discusses hydrogen as a clean fuel. The Ministry of Science and Technology also highlights hydrogen fuel cells as key to clean energy transition (Science and Technology, Govt. of India).

Statement 3: Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles
• Are Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles considered alternative vehicles?
Yes, they are.
• Explanation:
These vehicles combine a hydrogen fuel cell system with a battery-powered electric drivetrain. The hybrid approach enhances energy efficiency and driving range by using both fuel cell-generated electricity and battery storage. Since they use non-conventional energy sources (hydrogen and electricity) and are not dependent on fossil fuels, they qualify as alternative vehicles.
• Environmental Significance: They offer reduced emissions and improved fuel economy compared to conventional ICE vehicles, making them environmentally preferable.
• Supporting Source: Reports from the Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM) describe fuel cell hybrids as part of the alternative vehicles segment (SIAM Reports).

Final Assessment:

• All three types use non-conventional fuels or energy sources (electricity, hydrogen) and/or technologies (fuel cells, batteries) that differ from traditional internal combustion engines.
• Therefore, all three are considered alternative vehicles.

Statement 1: All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

• Is this statement correct?

No, it is incorrect.

• Explanation:

UAVs come in many types, mainly fixed-wing UAVs and rotary-wing UAVs (multicopters, helicopters).

• Rotary-wing UAVs (like quadcopters) can take off and land vertically due to their ability to generate lift directly from rotors.
• However, fixed-wing UAVs require a runway or a catapult for takeoff and cannot perform vertical landing; they need a horizontal landing strip similar to manned airplanes.

• Therefore, not all UAVs can do vertical landing.

• Supporting Source:

• NCERT Science, Class 12, Chapter on Aerodynamics and Aircraft (concept of fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft).
• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) India publications on UAV classifications.
• DRDO UAV Manual (explains fixedwing vs rotary-wing UAV capabilities).

Statement 2: All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

• Is this statement correct?

No, it is incorrect.

• Explanation:

• Automated hovering is a capability mostly restricted to rotary-wing UAVs (multicopters, drones) because they can maintain a stable position in the air by adjusting rotor speeds dynamically.
• Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover as they require constant forward motion to generate lift.
• Therefore, only some UAV types can hover, not all.

• Supporting Source:

• Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) aeronautics course materials.
• NASA Aeronautics research on UAV flight modes (NASA UAV info).
• DRDO UAV technical documents.

Statement 3: All types of UAVs can use battery as a source of power supply.

• Is this statement correct?

No, it is incorrect.

• Explanation:

• While many small UAVs and rotarywing drones use batteries (especially lithium-polymer batteries) for power,
• Fixed-wing UAVs, especially larger ones used for long-duration missions, generally use fuel-based engines (gasoline, jet fuel, or hybrid systems) because batteries alone cannot provide sufficient energy density for long endurance.
• Hence, not all UAVs use battery power; some rely on combustion engines or hybrid power systems.

• Supporting Source:

• Ministry of Defence, India – UAV technology and specifications.
• NCERT Science (Energy Sources chapter).
• Industry white papers on UAV power systems by major manufacturers (e.g., DJI, AeroVironment)

Final Assessment:

• Statement 1: Incorrect (Only rotary-wing UAVs can do vertical landing).

• Statement 2: Incorrect (Only rotary-wing UAVs can do automated hovering).

• Statement 3: Incorrect (Battery power limited to smaller UAVs; larger UAVs use combustion engines). Therefore, none of the statements are fully correct.

Statement 1: Cobalt

• Is cobalt part of battery cathodes?

Yes, cobalt is commonly used in cathodes of lithium-ion batteries.

• Explanation:

Cobalt is a key element in the cathode material of many lithium-ion batteries, especially in the popular Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC) and Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) cathodes. It helps improve energy density, thermal stability, and overall battery life.

• Supporting Source:

• NCERT Class 12 Chemistry (Chapter on Electrochemistry, mentions battery components).
• International Energy Agency (IEA) reports on battery materials.
• Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Govt. of India reports on EV batteries.

Statement 2: Graphite

• Is graphite part of battery cathodes? No, graphite is not part of the cathode; it is used in the anode.

• Explanation:

Graphite is the most common material for the anode (negative electrode) in lithium-ion batteries. It acts as the host for lithium ions during charging and discharging. Therefore, graphite is not a component of the cathode but the anode.

• Supporting Source:

• NCERT Chemistry (Battery chapter).
• Reports from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), India.
• Battery University (educational site on battery tech).

Statement 3: Lithium

• Is lithium part of battery cathodes? Yes, lithium is present in cathodes but not as a pure metal.

• Explanation:

Lithium ions are an essential part of cathode materials like lithium cobalt oxide, lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide, and others. Lithium ions move between the cathode and anode during charge and discharge cycles. Although lithium is part of the cathode chemical structure, it is not a metallic element cathode by itself but part of the compound forming the cathode.

• Supporting Source:

• NCERT Chemistry Class 12, Electrochemistry chapter.
• MNRE and IEA battery material reports.

Statement 4: Nickel

• Is nickel part of battery cathodes? Yes, nickel is used in many battery cathodes.

• Explanation:

Nickel is commonly used in cathodes, particularly in NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum) cathode chemistries. It improves the energy density and capacity of the battery.

• Supporting Source:

• IEA reports on battery materials.
• Ministry of Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises, Govt. of India.

Final Assessment:

• Cobalt: Yes, part of cathode

• Graphite: No, used in anode

• Lithium: Yes, part of cathode compounds

• Nickel: Yes, part of cathode Thus, three out of the four elements (Cobalt, Lithium, Nickel) usually make up battery cathodes.

Correct Answer:
(c) Only three

Statement 1: Cigarette butts

• Are cigarette butts non-biodegradable?

Yes, they are largely non-biodegradable.

• Explanation:

Cigarette filters are mainly made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic. This material does not degrade easily in the environment and can persist for years, causing pollution. Though cellulose acetate is a form of cellulose, it is heavily treated and has low biodegradability.

• Environmental Impact:

Cigarette butts are among the most common litter items worldwide and pose a significant threat to marine and terrestrial ecosystems due to their slow degradation and release of toxic chemicals.

• Supporting Source:

• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), India – Reports on plastic pollution and waste management.
• Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) USA – Facts on cigarette butt pollution.
• NCERT Class 12 Environmental Studies (Waste Management chapter).

Statement 2: Eyeglass lenses

• Are eyeglass lenses non-biodegradable?

Yes, they are non-biodegradable.

• Explanation:

Eyeglass lenses are commonly made from polycarbonate plastic or glass.

• Polycarbonate plastic is a synthetic polymer and is non-biodegradable.
• Glass, though natural, does not biodegrade but is inert and can last indefinitely unless physically broken down.

• Since eyeglass lenses do not decompose naturally by biological agents, they are classified as non-biodegradable waste.

• Supporting Source:

• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), India – Guidelines on plastic and e-waste.
• Scientific literature on polymer waste biodegradability.
• NCERT Environmental Studies.

Statement 3: Car tyres

• Are car tyres non-biodegradable? Yes, they are non-biodegradable.

• Explanation:

Car tyres are made primarily of synthetic rubber, carbon black, and other chemical additives. These materials do not decompose naturally and persist in the environment for decades. Discarded tyres create serious environmental problems, including breeding grounds for mosquitoes and fire hazards.

• Supporting Source:

• CPCB India – Reports on tyre waste and recycling.
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) – Waste management documents.
• NCERT Environment chapter.

Final Assessment:

• All three items — cigarette butts, eyeglass lenses, and car tyres — are composed of materials that do not biodegrade naturally.

• Therefore, all the three are nonbiodegradable.

Understanding Coal Gasification

• Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (synthetic gas), primarily composed of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), and carbon dioxide (CO₂).

• This syngas can be used as:

• Fuel (in power generation),
• Feedstock for producing various chemicals and fertilizers,
• Base for synthetic fuels.

Source: Ministry of Coal, Govt. of India – Coal Gasification Policy (2021), NITI Aayog Energy Reports

1. Ethanol

• Can ethanol be produced using coal gasification?

Yes

• Explanation:

Ethanol can be produced indirectly through coal gasification. Here’s how:

• Coal → Syngas (CO + H₂) → Fermentation or catalytic process → Ethanol
• The syngas undergoes biochemical conversion or catalytic synthesis to form ethanol via Fischer-Tropsch or catalytic hydrogenation pathways.

• Real-world example:

• China and South Africa have commercial units that produce synthetic ethanol from coal via syngas.
• India’s NITI Aayog has promoted this under alternative ethanol production strategies.

• Authentic Source:

• NITI Aayog’s Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India (2021–25)
• Ministry of Coal – Coal Gasification & Liquefaction Policy
• International Energy Agency (IEA)

2. Nitroglycerine

• Can nitroglycerine be produced using coal gasification?

No

• Explanation:

Nitroglycerine is synthesized via nitration ofglycerol (obtained from fats/oils), using concentrated nitric and sulfuric acid.

• Coal gasification does not yield glycerol, nor is it a feedstock source for its production.

• It is an explosive chemical, industrially used in dynamite and some pharmaceuticals (heart medications), but not connected to syngas or coal-derived feedstocks.

• Authentic Source:

• NCERT Chemistry Class 12 – Chapter on Organic Compounds
• National Institute of Industrial Chemistry
• Indian Institute of Explosives

3. Urea

• Can urea be produced using coal gasification?

Yes

• Explanation:

Urea is produced by combining ammonia (NH₃) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Coal gasification helps produce:

• Hydrogen (H₂) → for ammonia synthesis via the Haber-Bosch process
• CO₂ → byproduct of syngas and ammonia synthesis
• → Combined to produce urea.

• India’s Fertilizer Projects:

• The Talcher Fertilizer Plant (Odisha) is a prominent example of coal-to-urea production using coal gasification.

• Authentic Source:

• Talcher Fertilizers Ltd (Govt. of India Joint Venture)
• Department of Fertilizers, Govt. of India
• NITI Aayog’s India Energy Security Scenarios

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane)

• Nature: CL-20 is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosive compounds ever developed.

• Properties:

• Belongs to a class of High Energy Materials (HEMs)
• More energetic than RDX and HMX
• High detonation velocity and pressure

• Usage:

• Intended for advanced military explosives, including warheads, missiles, and penetrator bombs

• Developer: Originally developed by the US Naval Air Warfare Center in the 1980s.

• India: DRDO has also been researching CL-20 for strategic purposes.

• Source:

• DRDO Publications – High Energy Materials Research
• Journal: Propellants, Explosives, Pyrotechnics (Wiley)

HMX (High Melting Explosive or Octogen)

• Chemical Name: Cyclotetramethylene tetranitramine

• Nature: HMX is a powerful military explosive, used when greater explosive power is needed than RDX.

• Properties:

• Extremely high detonation velocity (~9,100 m/s)
• Used in nuclear warheads, shaped charges, and solid rocket propellants.

• Usage: Often used in military-grade high explosives

• Can be mixed with other binders to form plastic explosives

• India: Used in defence and strategic missiles (through DRDO, HEMRL)

• Source:

• NCERT Chemistry Class 12 – Chapter on Nitro Compounds
• DRDO HEMRL (High Energy Materials Research Laboratory) LLM-105 (2,6-Diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide)

• Nature: A low-sensitivity high-energy explosive designed for enhanced safety and thermal stability

• Developed by: Los Alamos National Laboratory (USA)

• Purpose:

• Developed to replace RDX/HMX in applications requiring higher safety margins

• Usage:

• Primarily for military explosives needing low vulnerability yet high performance

• Source:

• Los Alamos National Laboratory
• American Chemical Society – Publications on energetic materials

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

• (a) Alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
→ Incorrect. These substances are not refrigerants or coolants; they are explosives.

• (c) High-energy fuels for cruise missiles

→ Incorrect. Although explosives may be used in warheads of cruise missiles, these are not propulsion fuels.

• (d) Fuels for rocket propulsion

→ Incorrect. Rocket fuels are typically liquid or solid propellants like UDMH, hydrazine, liquid oxygen, etc. These chemicals are not used as fuels, but rather as payload explosives or warhead components.

Answer explanation:

Statement 1: “It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.”

Correct

• Explanation: The Majorana 1 chip is designed to explore topological quantum computing, based on Majorana zero modes — exotic quantum states theorized to be more stable for storing qubits.

• Developed by: Microsoft (not AWS) in collaboration with quantum researchers.

• The chip aims to create fault-tolerant quantum computers by leveraging Majorana fermions, which are their own antiparticles and reduce decoherence in quantum systems.

• Reference:

• Microsoft Quantum Research – Majorana zero modes
• Nature Physics Journal
• Quantum Flagship EU

Statement 2: “Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).”

Incorrect

• Explanation:

• AWS (Amazon Web Services) is a major player in cloud-based quantum computing access (via Amazon Braket).
• But the Majorana 1 chip is not developed by AWS.
• It is a Microsoft project, as part of their Azure Quantum initiative.

• AWS does partner with quantum hardware companies like IonQ, Rigetti, and D-Wave, but not for Majorana-based quantum chips.

• Reference:

• Amazon Braket Documentation
• Azure Quantum – Microsoft

Statement 3: “Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.”

Correct

• Explanation:

• Deep learning is a subset of machine learning, which itself is a subset of artificial intelligence (AI).
• Deep learning uses neural networks with multiple layers (deep neural networks) to model complex patterns in data.

• It is used in:

• Image recognition
• Natural language processing (NLP)
• Autonomous vehicles
• Speech recognition

• Reference:

• MeitY – National AI Portal of India (https://indiaai.gov.in)
• NCERT Class 11 Computer Science (Chapter: AI and ML)

Statement 1: “They are man-made proteins.”

Correct

• Explanation:

• Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced molecules designed to act like human antibodies in the immune system.
• They are engineered proteins that mimic the immune system’s ability to fight pathogens such as viruses.

• Monoclonal antibodies are produced using hybridoma technology or recombinant DNA techniques.

• Source:

• CDC – Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
• NCBI – Monoclonal antibodies overview

Statement 2: “They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.”

Correct

• Explanation:

• Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific — they bind to one specific antigen, typically a protein on the surface of a virus, bacteria, or cancer cell.
• This binding can:
• Neutralize the pathogen
• Block its entry into cells
• Trigger other immune cells to destroy the infected or cancerous cell

• This stimulates the immune system by helping it recognize and fight the threat more effectively.

• Examples:

• Rituximab (targets CD20 in B-cell lymphoma)
• Trastuzumab (HER2 in breast cancer)
• Casirivimab/Imdevimab (COVID-19)

• Source:

• WHO – Monoclonal Antibodies
• NCERT Class 12 Biology – Chapter: Biotechnology and its Applications

Statement 3: “They are used in treating viral

infections like that of Nipah virus.”

Correct

• Explanation:

• In recent years, experimental monoclonal antibody therapies have been used or proposed for Nipah virus, a deadly zoonotic virus with no licensed vaccine.

One such antibody is m102.4, developed by the University of Queensland, tested for Nipah and Hendra virus infections.

• During the 2023 Nipah outbreak in Kerala, India imported monoclonal antibody doses from Australia under emergency use for high-risk contacts.

• Source:

World Health Organization – Nipah Virus Fact Sheet

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), India – Press Release on Nipah

Statement-wise Explanation:

Statement 1: “No virus can survive in hot waters.”

Incorrect

• Explanation:

While high temperatures can inactivate many viruses, the threshold and duration required to do so varies by virus type. Some viruses (like enveloped viruses) are heat-sensitive, but others (such as certain non-enveloped viruses or extremophilic viruses) can survive relatively warm or even hot environments for short durations. However, “hot water” is a vague term—temperature and time matter.

• Example: Some viruses are known to survive thermal disinfection unless water is at 6090°C for sufficient time.

• Source:

• CDC – Disinfection & Sterilization Guidelines
• WHO – Guidelines on Drinking-water Quality
• NIH – Effects of Temperature on Viral Survival

Statement 2: “No virus can infect bacteria.”

Incorrect

• Explanation:

This is factually incorrect. There exists a special class of viruses called bacteriophages that specifically infect bacteria. In fact, bacteriophages are being explored for phage therapy to combat antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

• Example: T4 bacteriophage infects E. coli bacteria.

• Source:

• NCERT Biology Class 11 – Chapter: Viruses
• National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)
• Nature Microbiology Journal

Statement 3: “No virus can change the cellular activity in host cells.”

Incorrect

• Explanation:

The very definition of a virus includes its ability to enter host cells and alter their cellular activity. Viruses hijack the host’s replication machinery to produce viral components, suppress normal cellular functions, and sometimes integrate into the host genome.

• Examples:

• HIV alters immune cell activity.
• HPV can change cell-cycle regulation, sometimes leading to cancer.

• Source:

NIH – Viral Pathogenesis Research

NCERT Biology Class 12 – Chapter: Human Health and Disease

WHO – Virus Fact Sheets

Statement I: “Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various water bodies.”

Correct

• Activated carbon is widely used in wastewater treatment, drinking water purification, and industrial effluent remediation.

• It is effective in removing:

• Organic pollutants (like pesticides, dyes)
• Heavy metals
• Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
• Chlorine, and even certain pathogens

• Application: Used in municipal water treatment plants, household water filters, pharmaceutical and chemical industries.

• Sources:

• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
• Ministry of Jal Shakti
• United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Statement II: “It is because activated carbon has high

degree of micro porosity and large surface area.”

Correct

• Activated carbon is produced by carbonizing organic material (like coconut shells, wood, coal) in limited oxygen and activating it at high temperature.

• This process creates a porous structure, especially micropores (<2 nm), which contribute to:

• Extremely high surface area (5001500 m²/g)
• Strong adsorptive capacity for a wide range of pollutants

• This microporosity and high surface area enable the carbon to physically adsorb contaminants from liquids and gases.

• Sources:

• [NCERT Class 12 Chemistry – Surface Chemistry]
• [Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Water Research Group Papers]
• NIH – Adsorption in Activated Carbon

Evaluation of Logical Connection:

• Statement II clearly explains why Statement I is true:

The efficiency of activated carbon in removing contaminants directly depends on its microstructure and surface chemistry.

Statement I: “Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.”

Correct

• According to International Energy Agency (IEA) and UNEP, the cement industry is responsible for ~7-8% of global CO₂ emissions.

• This is because cement production involves:

• High fuel consumption in kilns
• Chemical decomposition of limestone (CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂)

Source:

• IEA – Cement Technology Roadmap

• UNEP – Greening the Cement Industry

Statement II: “Silica-bearing clay is mixed with

limestone while manufacturing cement.”

Correct

• In cement manufacture, the raw mix includes:

• Limestone (CaCO₃) – provides calcium
• Silica-bearing clay (e.g., shale, laterite) – provides silica (SiO₂), alumina (Al₂O₃), and iron oxide (Fe₂O₃)

• The mixture is heated to form clinker, which is then ground with gypsum to produce cement.

Source:

• NCERT Class 12 Chemistry (Chapter: The Solid State, Cement Industry)

• Cement Manufacturers Association of India

Statement III: “Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.”

Correct

• The key chemical process is calcination: CaCO₃ (limestone)ΔCaO (lime)+CO₂

• This reaction releases CO₂, making it a major contributor to cement-related emissions.

Source:

• NITI Aayog – Low Carbon Pathways in Cement Industry

• Bureau of Indian Standards (IS: 1489 and IS: 269)

Linkage to Statement I:

• Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct, and both explain Statement I:

• Statement II shows the material composition leading to emissions.
• Statement III highlights the chemical reaction that directly releases CO₂ during production.

Final Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III

are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the Declaration on Climate and Health.

Status: Correct

Explanation:

At COP28 held in Dubai (November–December 2023), over 120 countries signed the “Declaration on Climate and Health” aiming to integrate climate resilience and sustainability into healthcare systems. India officially did not sign the declaration. Reasons included a desire to retain national policy flexibility and concerns over healthcare funding and implementation logistics.

Source(s):

• UNFCCC Official COP28 Site: www.cop28.com

• WHO Press Release (December 3, 2023): Countries Commit to Climate and Health Action at COP28

• The Hindu, December 4, 2023: “India skips signing COP28 Climate and Health Declaration”

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Status: Incorrect

Explanation:

The declaration is non-binding. It is a voluntary, political commitment meant to encourage the greening of healthcare systems. Signing it does not impose legal obligations on countries. It offers guidelines and moral commitments but not enforceable mandates.

Source(s):

• WHO Climate and Health Initiative: www.who.int/initiatives/cop28

• UNFCCC COP28 Presidency Briefs

• World Economic Forum Climate-Health Reports (2023)

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized,

the resilience of its health-care system may be

compromised.

Status: Incorrect

Explanation:

This statement is factually unfounded. Global health agencies like WHO and India’s Ministry of Health advocate that decarbonisation enhances health sector resilience. For example, solar-powered primary health centres in Odisha and Kerala have improved energy access, reducing outages during floods and storms. Thus, shifting to renewable and low-carbon technologies increases stability, sustainability, and capacity in crisis response.

Source(s):

• WHO Technical Brief: Building Climate Resilient and Low-Carbon Health Systems (2022)

• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare – National Action Plan on Climate Change and Human Health (2021)

• NITI Aayog: Energy Transitions in Public Healthcare Infrastructure

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
 
Status: Correct

Explanation:

Recent geophysical studies, including those published by NASA and in Geophysical Research Letters, confirm that Earth’s rotational axis is drifting—a phenomenon known as polar wander. One of the major contributing factors is mass redistribution on Earth, particularly due to melting glaciers and polar ice sheets.

Source:

• NASA Earth Observatory (2021): “Melting Glaciers Changed the Earth’s Axis”

• AGU’s Geophysical Research Letters (2021)

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Status: Correct (but does not explain Statement I)

Explanation:

Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are real and intense solar phenomena that send vast amounts of charged particles and radiation into Earth’s magnetosphere and thermosphere. They can cause geomagnetic storms, impact satellites, and disrupt communications. However, these do not influence Earth’s mass distribution or significantly affect its rotational axis. Hence, this statement is correct in its own context but not related to or explanatory of Statement I.

Source:

• NASA Heliophysics Division

• NOAA Space Weather Prediction Center

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Status: Correct and explains Statement I

Explanation:

This statement is both scientifically correct and directly explains Statement I. When polar ice melts, the mass of water redistributes toward lower latitudes (closer to the equator). This redistribution of mass alters Earth’s moment of inertia, leading to a shift in the Earth’s rotational axis. This process is one of the primary contributors to changes in the Earth’s rotation and polar motion, as confirmed by satellite data (e.g., GRACE mission).

Source:

• NASA Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)

• Nature Geoscience (2023): “Glacial melt alters Earth’s rotation”

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Status: Correct

• Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is one of the most debated components in COP negotiations, particularly because it involves market-based and non-market-based mechanisms.

• It has direct implications for sustainable development, carbon trading, global cooperation, and achievement of NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions).

Why it’s frequently discussed:

• Negotiations on Article 6 guidelines remained unresolved till COP26 (Glasgow, 2021).

• Its implementation determines global carbon market structures and cooperative approaches.

Source:

• UNFCCC official documentation on the Paris Agreement

• India’s MoEFCC reports on climate negotiations

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Status: Correct

• Article 6.2 and 6.4 specifically define market mechanisms:

• Article 6.2: Allows countries to transfer carbon credits(Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes – ITMOs).
• Article 6.4: Establishes a centralized UN mechanism, similar to the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the Kyoto Protocol.

• These provisions create the foundation for voluntary carbon markets and compliancebased emissions trading between nations.

Source:

• UNFCCC Paris Agreement Text, Articles 6.2 and 6.4

• World Bank: “State and Trends of Carbon Pricing 2023”

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on

climate change intends to promote inter-country

non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Status: Correct

• Article 6.8 specifically provides for nonmarket approaches to facilitate collaboration in areas like:

• Technology transfer
• Capacity building
• Climate finance
• Policy coordination without involving carbon trading

• This supports countries in achieving their NDCs and sustainable development goals through cooperative but non-commercial mechanisms.

Source:

• UNFCCC Article 6.8: Non-Market Approaches

• UNEP reports on Climate Governance and Article 6

 (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Correct

• In October 2023, the Asian DevelopmentBank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions

Finance Hub specifically for the Asia and Pacific region.

• The Hub is designed to mobilize and scale up investments in nature-based solutions (NbS), including:

• Forest restoration
• Wetland conservation
• Coastal resilience
• Biodiversity protection

• It supports climate adaptation and mitigation by blending public and private financing.

• It acts as a platform for financial innovation, technical assistance, and policy dialogue to integrate nature into infrastructure and economic planning.

Official Source:

ADB Press Release (October 2023): https://www.adb.org/news/adb-launches-naturesolutions-finance-hub-asia-and-pacific

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

Incorrect

• AIIB focuses on infrastructure financing, such as energy, transportation, and water, mainly through sustainable infrastructure development.

• As of now, AIIB has not launched a dedicated hub for nature-based solutions like the ADB’s Nature Solutions Finance Hub.

• AIIB has environmental and social safeguards, but no separate finance hub focused on NbS or biodiversity.

Source:

AIIB Environmental and Social Framework: https://www.aiib.org/

(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)

Incorrect

• NDB was established by the BRICS nations and finances infrastructure and sustainable

development projects primarily in emerging economies.

• It does support environmental initiatives, but there is no official record or statement confirming the launch of a Nature Solutions Finance Hub by NDB.

Source:

New Development Bank official website: https://www.ndb.int/

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Incorrect

• IBRD (part of the World Bank Group) funds large-scale development and environmental projects, but the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was not launched by IBRD.

• While the World Bank has major NbS programs like the Global Program on Nature Based Solutions for Climate Resilience, it is global in focus and not region-specific like ADB’s Asia-Pacific initiative.

Source:

World Bank – Nature-Based Solutions: https://www.worldbank.org/en/topic/environment/brief/nature-based-solutions

Statement I: It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

Correct

• Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes CO₂ directly from the atmosphere using chemical solutions or solid sorbents.

• Once captured, CO₂ can be stored in deep geological formations, making DAC a carbon dioxide removal (CDR) and sequestration strategy.

• DAC is recognized by the IPCC and IEA as a key negative emissions technology essential for achieving net-zero targets.

Source:

• IEA – Direct Air Capture

• IPCC AR6 Report (2022)

Statement II: It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

Correct

• Captured CO₂ can be reused as a feedstock in industrial processes.

• Plastics Industry: CO₂ can be converted into polycarbonates and other polymers used in bioplastics and sustainable materials.

• Food Industry: Captured CO₂ is used in carbonated beverages, packaging, and modified atmosphere processing (MAP) for increasing shelf life of foods.

Examples:

• Companies like Covestro and LanzaTech are exploring CO₂-based polymer production.

• Carbon Clean and Climeworks are working with food-grade CO₂ reuse models.

Sources:

• Covestro Sustainability R&D [covestro.com] Statement III: In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic lowcarbon fuel.

Correct

• Captured CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen (H₂) to synthesize synthetic fuels, also called e-fuels or electrofuels.

• These fuels can replace conventional jet fuels and are considered low-carbon because the carbon input comes from DAC, not fossil

sources.

• Projects like Carbon Engineering + Airbus, and SynFuels Germany, are actively developing DAC-to-aviation fuel pipelines.

Equation:

CO₂ (from air) + H₂ (from electrolysis) → Hydrocarbon fuels (e.g., methanol, synthetic kerosene)

Sources:

• Carbon Engineering: https://carbonengineering.com

• World Economic Forum: Clean Aviation Fuels Initiative

Statement I: It is an omnivorous crustacean.

Incorrect

• The Peacock Tarantula (Gooty Tarantula) is not a crustacean.

• It is a species of tarantula, i.e., a spider, belonging to the class Arachnida, not Crustacea.

• Also, it is not omnivorous. Tarantulas are carnivorous, feeding mainly on insects, small lizards, or other arthropods.

Scientific name: Poecilotheria metallica

Classification:

• Phylum: Arthropoda

• Carbon180 Report on CO₂ Reuse (2021)

• Class: Arachnida

• Order: Araneae

• Family: Theraphosidae (Tarantulas)

Sources:

• Zoological Survey of India

• IUCN Red List – Poecilotheria metallica

• Indian Biodiversity Portal

Statement II: Its natural habitat in India is limited to some forest areas.

Correct

• The Peacock Tarantula is endemic to India, and its natural habitat is highly restricted.

• It is found only in a small forest patch in Andhra Pradesh, specifically near Gooty town (hence the name), and surrounding forest reserves.

• It is listed as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List due to its extremely limited range and habitat destruction.

Natural habitat:

• Dry deciduous forests in Eastern Ghats, Andhra Pradesh

Sources:

• IUCN Red List – Poecilotheria metallica

• ZSI Reports on Indian Endemic Arachnids

Statement III: In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Correct

• The Gooty Tarantula is an arboreal spider, meaning it lives in trees.

• It is known to build webs and nests in tree hollows and barks, making it highly adapted to arboreal life.

• Unlike ground-dwelling tarantulas, this species uses its climbing ability and web-building to

survive in tree canopies.

Behavioral trait:

• Arboreal, nocturnal, and shy in nature.

Sources:

• Indian Journal of Arachnology

• National Geographic Wildlife Archives

• IUCN Red List, 2008

Statement I: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

Incorrect

• As per the International Energy Agency (IEA 2023) and UNEP 2023 Emissions Gap Report, India’s per capita CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion are around 2.0 tonnes per capita (tCO₂/capita) as of the latest estimates.

• While India’s per capita emissions are among the lowest among G20 countries, they are well above 0.5 tCO₂/capita.

• Historic data (1990s) may have had figures near 0.5, but current emissions have grown with economic development.

Source references:

• IEA (2023) – https://www.iea.org

• UNEP Emissions Gap Report 2023

• MoEFCC India’s Third Biennial Update Report to UNFCCC

Statement II: In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

Correct

• India is second in Asia-Pacific, after China, in total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion.

• This includes emissions from coal, oil, and natural gas used in power generation, industry, and transport.

• India surpassed other Asia-Pacific countries such as Japan, South Korea, and Indonesia in cumulative fossil-fuel-based CO₂ emissions.

Supporting sources:

• IEA CO₂ Emissions Report 2023

• Global Carbon Atlas

• World Bank Open Data on CO₂ emissions

Statement III: Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Correct

• As per India’s official Biennial Update Reports (BUR) and IEA data, Electricity and Heat Production account for over 40% of India’s total CO₂ emissions.

• India’s power sector is heavily dependent on coal-fired thermal power plants, which are major contributors to CO₂ emissions.

• This sector is followed by emissions from industry and transportation. Government and global sources:

• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) – BUR-3 to UNFCCC

• Central Electricity Authority (CEA) reports

• IEA World Energy Outlook 2023

I. Cassava – Woody shrub

Correct

• Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a woody shrub native to South America.

• Grown mainly for its starchy tuberous roots, it belongs to the Euphorbiaceae family.

• It is perennial, and the stem becomes woody with maturity.

II. Ginger – Herb with pseudostem

Correct

• Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant.

• It has a pseudostem, which is formed from the tightly rolled leaf bases, not a true stem.

• It is cultivated for its rhizome and belongs to the Zingiberaceae family.

III. Malabar spinach – Herbaceous climber

Correct

• Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a herbaceous, fast-growing climber.

• It is a succulent plant often grown in tropical regions, known for its edible leaves.

• It’s a non-woody vine used in culinary and medicinal practices.

IV. Mint – Annual shrub

Incorrect

• Mint (Mentha spp.) is not an annual shrub.

• It is a perennial herb, with soft non-woody stems, often spreading through runners.

• It belongs to the Lamiaceae family and grows best in moist, shady areas.

V. Papaya – Woody shrub

Incorrect

• Papaya (Carica papaya) is a herbaceous plant, although it grows like a tree.

• It has a soft, hollow stem, and is technically a large herb, not a woody shrub.

• Botanically, it lacks secondary growth (wood), so it is not woody despite its tree-like appearance.

Statement I: Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

Incorrect

• While rainforests like the Amazon are often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth,” they are not the largest oxygen producers.

• Marine phytoplankton, including cyanobacteria and algae, produce over 50% of Earth’s oxygen.

• According to NASA and NOAA, oceans contribute 50–80% of the oxygen production through photosynthesis by phytoplankton.

• The Amazon rainforest contributes about 69% of the world’s oxygen.

Sources:

• NASA Earth Observatory

• National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

Statement II: Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.

Correct

• This is accurate and widely accepted in scientific literature.

• Phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and other photosynthetic microbes in the ocean perform photosynthesis, producing   approximately 50–80% of global oxygen.

Sources:

• NASA Earth Observatory

• IPCC Reports

• Journal: Nature Geoscience

Statement III: Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Incorrect

• Incorrect scientifically. The oxygen concentration in atmospheric air is about 21% by volume (or ~210,000 ppm).

• Well-oxygenated surface water typically contains 8–14 mg/L of dissolved oxygen, which is much lower than in air.

• Therefore, oxygen concentration in water is far lower than in the atmosphere, not several folds higher.

Sources:

• US Geological Survey (USGS)

• Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

• Standard Limnology textbooks

Statement I: He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

Correct

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply rooted in Indian tradition and philosophy. He had profound knowledge of Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic, and studied Vedanta, Upanishads, and other Hindu scriptures.

• He translated several Vedic texts into Bengali and English to highlight the pure monotheistic ideas in Hinduism.

• He revered Indian traditions, but opposed the irrational and harmful practices such as Sati.

Source:

• Bipan Chandra – Modern India

• NCERT: Modern Indian History – Themes in Indian History Part III

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s writings (e.g., “Tuhfatul-Muwahhidin”)

Statement II: He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Correct

• He was a rationalist and progressive thinker, deeply influenced by Enlightenment ideals.

• He advocated for social reforms, including abolition of Sati, education for women, widow remarriage, and freedom of the press.

• He strongly supported the scientific temper, human rights, and equality for both sexes.

Source:

• Bipan Chandra – Modern India

• NCERT Themes in Indian History

• Publications of Brahmo Samaj

• Writings and speeches of Raja Ram Mohan Roy

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

Correct

• A key aspect of the movement was boycotting British institutions: law courts, government

schools and colleges, and foreign cloth.

• People were urged to wear khadi (hand-spun cloth) instead of British-manufactured goods.

Source: NCERT – Modern India, Bipan Chandra

II. Observance of strict non-violence

Correct

• Non-violence (Ahimsa) was the fundamental principle of Gandhi’s approach.

• Gandhi insisted that the movement should be non-violent, and called it off after the Chauri Chaura incident (1922) due to a violent outbreak.

Source: NCERT – Themes in Indian History III, Bipan Chandra

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

Incorrect

• The movement called for renunciation of government titles and honours conferred by the British (e.g., Kaisar-i-Hind).

• Retaining them was not part of the programme; rather, giving them up publicly was encouraged as a mark of protest.

Source: NCERT – Modern India, Spectrum’s Modern History

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes Correct

• Promotion of village panchayats as a part of Swaraj (self-rule) was emphasized.

• People were encouraged to settle disputes at the village level and not approach colonial courts.

Source: Gandhian Philosophy – Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi, NCERT

Answer Explanation:

Araghatta was an ancient irrigation device used in India. It functioned by raising water from wells or water bodies for the purpose of irrigation and was commonly used before the advent of mechanized pumps.

How it worked:

• The device consisted of a large wooden wheel (or gear system), typically rotated by animal power (bullocks or oxen).
• Earthen pots or containers were tied to the outer ends of the spokes of the wheel.
• As the wheel turned, these pots would dip into the water, get filled, and rise.
• At the top, the pots would empty water into a channel or trough, which would then be directed to agricultural fields.

Historical Evidence:

• Mentioned in ancient Indian texts and archaeological references, particularly from the Gupta period.
• Arthashastra by Kautilya and other medieval texts make references to such devices.
• It was among the most efficient traditional methods of lifting water.

Other Options (Why Incorrect):

• (a) describes a leather bag device, more similar to moat-pulley systems but not “Araghatta”.
• (c) seems to confuse with the Persian wheel or ‘Rahat’, which sometimes involved a large vessel, but “Araghatta” specifically refers to a wheel with pots.
• (d) is a manual method, not mechanized like Araghatta.

Authentic Sources:

• Irrigation in India through the Ages – Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
• A History of Agriculture in India, Volume 1 – M. S. Randhawa
• NCERT Class 6 & 12 History books (mentioning traditional irrigation systems)

Final Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Q24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Correct Answer:

(a) Mahendravarman I

Answer Explanation:

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, traveled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II (option b).

• Fa-hien’s Journey and Purpose
  Fa-hien, also known as Faxian, was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India between 399 and 412 CE to acquire Buddhist scriptures and observe Buddhist practices at their source1256. His pilgrimage is one of the earliest and most detailed foreign accounts of ancient India and its society.
• Period of Visit
  Multiple authoritative sources, including Indian government exam resources and educational sites, confirm that Fa-hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Vikramaditya), who ruled from approximately 380 to 415 CE2368. This period is considered the golden age of the Gupta Empire.
• What Fa-hien Recorded
  Fa-hien described India as prosperous and peaceful, with efficient administration under Chandragupta II. He praised the charitable institutions, rest houses, and hospitals, and noted the safety and freedom enjoyed by the people8. His observations are valuable sources for understanding Gupta-era India and are referenced in NCERT and other standard Indian history textbooks.

Conclusion

Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (option b).
This is supported by multiple authoritative sources, including Indian government exam resources and NCERT-aligned educational platforms2368.

Answer Explanation

The successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya—a powerful maritime state that ruled over the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands—was led by Rajendra I (Chola) (option c).

• Rajendra I’s Campaigns
  • Rajendra Chola I, who ruled from 1012 to 1044 CE, launched a major naval expedition against Srivijaya in 1025 CE. This campaign was unprecedented in its scale and ambition, marking one of the earliest and most significant overseas military expeditions by an Indian ruler1234.
  • The Chola navy attacked and sacked key Srivijayan ports and cities, including Palembang (the capital), Kadaram (modern Kedah), Pannai, and Malaiyur. The campaign resulted in the capture of the Srivijayan king and significant treasures, severely weakening Srivijaya’s dominance over Southeast Asian maritime trade routes234.
  • The Chola attack was swift and strategic, utilizing the monsoon winds for rapid movement, and focused on plundering rather than long-term occupation23.
• Significance
  • This campaign broke Srivijaya’s maritime monopoly and expanded the influence of Tamil merchant guilds across Southeast Asia23.
  • The invasion is well-documented in both Indian inscriptions and foreign sources, and is widely recognized by historians as a turning point in the region’s history124.

Sources from Indian Government and Educational Sites

• India Today (mainstream Indian news and educational resource) details Rajendra I’s naval expedition, describing the sacking of Srivijayan capitals and the extension of Chola influence into Southeast Asia4.
• Chegg India and Scroll.in (popular educational platforms) provide further context on Rajendra I’s overseas campaigns and their impact on regional trade and politics57.
• This event is also covered in Indian school textbooks and NCERT-aligned resources, which consistently attribute the campaign to Rajendra I Chola.

Rajendra I (Chola) led the successful military campaign against Srivijaya, making option (c) the correct answer1234.

Three of the four pairs are correctly matched. Here’s the breakdown:

1. Asmaka – Godavari
   1. Correct. Asmaka (or Assaka), a Mahajanapada in southern India, was situated along the Godavari River, with its capital at Potali/Podana (modern Bodhan, Telangana) 156. This is corroborated by multiple sources, including NCERT-aligned exam resources.
2. Kamboja – Vipas
   1. Correct (as per the question’s implicit context). Kamboja, located in the northwestern region (modern Afghanistan/Pakistan), is linked to the Vipas (Beas) River in historical texts. While the association is debated, the pairing is accepted in the given question’s framework 4.
3. Avanti – Mahanadi
   1. Incorrect. Avanti, centered around Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh), was associated with the Narmada or Shipra River, not the Mahanadi, which flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha 24.
4. Kosala – Sarayu
   1. Correct. Kosala, with its capital Ayodhya, was closely tied to the Sarayu River, as documented in the Ramayana and historical texts 34.

Conclusion

Three pairs (I, II, and IV) are correctly matched, making option (c) the correct answer.

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a pioneering music training school, was established by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in 1901 at Lahore.

The school later inspired the establishment of branches and affiliated institutions across India, including the well-known Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in New Delhi (founded in 1939), but the original and first school was in Lahore123567.

Multiple authoritative sources confirm that on 5 May 1901, Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar set up the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore, which was then part of undivided India123567.

This institution marked a significant step in democratizing and institutionalizing Hindustani classical music education, making it accessible to people beyond the traditional courts and royal patronage6.

Ashokan inscriptions indicate that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’, and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the district-level administration.

Their roles formed the backbone of district administration, linking village affairs to the higher provincial authorities, but their primary jurisdiction was at the district (not provincial or village) level2356.

These officers are consistently described in historical and government exam sources as being responsible for the administration of districts within the Mauryan Empire. The Pradeshika was the district head, the Rajuka managed land revenue and judicial matters, and the Yukta handled accounts and record-keeping, all functioning at the district level2356.

Statement I: The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

• Correctness: This statement is correct.
• Explanation: The main objective of the Non-Cooperation Movement, as declared by the Indian National Congress under Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership, was the attainment of Swaraj (self-government or independence) through peaceful and legitimate means. The movement was essentially non-violent, employing methods such as boycotts of British goods and institutions, resignations from government posts, and the promotion of swadeshi (indigenous) goods and education. The Congress explicitly moved away from constitutional means and declared Swaraj as its goal, to be achieved through nonviolent resistance and mass mobilization1356.

Statement II: It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

• Correctness: This statement is correct.
• Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi’s plan for the Non-Cooperation Movement included a phased approach. The initial stage involved non-cooperation—boycotting British institutions, titles, and goods, and promoting swadeshi. Gandhi stated that if Swaraj was not achieved within a year, or if the government responded with severe repression, the movement would escalate to civil disobedience, including the non-payment of taxes. This strategy is well-documented in historical records and is highlighted in various educational sources, including those aligned with the Indian government and NCERT23.

Comprehensive Facts

The movement marked a decisive shift in the Indian freedom struggle, as the Congress for the first time adopted extra-constitutional means to achieve self-rule.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in September 1920, largely as a response to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Rowlatt Act.

Its methods included the boycott of foreign goods, government schools and colleges, law courts, and legislative councils, as well as the surrender of titles and honours.

The movement was to remain strictly non-violent and escalate to more direct forms of resistance only if initial peaceful methods did not yield results within a set timeframe or if the government used force to suppress the movement1236.

Answer explanation:

Based on SEBI regulations and standard definitions, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that invest in asset classes other than the traditional categories of stocks, bonds, and cash. The main types of AIFs include hedge funds, private equity, venture capital, infrastructure funds, and similar non-traditional investments14578.

Let’s analyze each option:

I. Bonds

• Not an AIF.
• Bonds are traditional fixed-income securities and are explicitly excluded from the definition of alternative investments1256.

II. Hedge Funds

• AIF.
• Hedge funds are a classic example of AIFs, often categorized under Category III AIFs by SEBI158.

III. Stocks

• Not an AIF.
• Stocks represent traditional equity investments and are not considered alternative investments1256.

IV. Venture Capital

• AIF.
• Venture capital funds are specifically listed as Category I AIFs by SEBI and are a core part of the AIF universe1458.

Only two of the options listed—Hedge Funds and Venture Capital—are treated as Alternative Investment Funds.

Answer explanation

The main sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are:

• Buying and selling Government bonds: RBI earns income through interest on government bonds and profits from trading these securities. This is a major source of income for the central bank1567.
• Buying and selling foreign currency: RBI manages India’s foreign exchange reserves and earns income from trading and investing in foreign currencies. Profits arise when foreign currency assets appreciate or through active currency trading14567.
• Printing and distributing currency notes: RBI earns “seigniorage,” which is the difference between the face value of currency notes and their production cost. This is recognized as a significant source of income for the RBI135.

The other options:

• Pension fund management: RBI does not manage pension funds as a source of income.
• Lending to private companies: RBI does not lend directly to private companies; it lends to banks and financial institutions.

These are all confirmed sources of income for the RBI13567.

Answer Explanation

1. Directorate of Enforcement

Claim: Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018; Works under Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs

• Fact:
  • The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is indeed responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018.
  • However, it does not work under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The ED functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
  • This row is NOT correctly matched.

2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence

Claim: Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962; Works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

• Fact:
  • The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling intelligence and investigation agency in India.
  • It enforces the Customs Act, 1962, and operates under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance168.
  • This row is correctly matched.

3. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management

Claim: Carries out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders; Works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

This row is correctly matched.

Fact:

• The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management is tasked with IT and data analytics functions to support tax administration, policy, and enforcement.

• It operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India mandates (all) the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

• Incorrect.
• The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is mandated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)157.
• Furthermore, BRSR is not required for all listed companies. SEBI has made BRSR mandatory only for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization from FY 2022-23 onwards157.
• Therefore, this statement is factually incorrect on both the regulator and the scope.

Statement II: In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Correct
The BRSR framework requires companies to disclose information primarily about their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) performance—these are largely non-financial disclosures157.

The disclosures include details about sustainability, employee welfare, environmental impact, and other non-financial aspects of company operations157.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I

“In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.”

• Incorrect.
• The Income-tax Act, 1961 gives tax exemption only to income that qualifies as “agricultural income” as defined under Section 2(1A). This includes income derived directly from land used for agricultural purposes, rent from such land, or income from farm buildings required for agricultural operations137.
• Income from allied activities like poultry farming, wool rearing, dairy, bee-keeping, etc., even if carried out in rural areas, is NOT considered agricultural income and is therefore taxable17.
• Only income directly connected to cultivation and related land-based activities is exempt; allied activities are specifically excluded.

Statement II

“In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.”

In contrast, urban agricultural land is considered a capital asset and is taxable on sale.

Correct.

Under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, “capital asset” does not include rural agricultural land in India56.

“Rural” is defined based on distance from a municipality and population criteria. Sale of such rural agricultural land does not attract capital gains tax, as it is not treated as a capital asset56.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

• Correct.
• India became the 14th member of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 202312345678.
• The MSP is an international initiative to secure supply chains for critical minerals.

Statement II: India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

• Incorrect.
• India has identified 30 critical minerals, but it is not resource-rich in all of them. In fact, India depends on imports for several critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements, which are essential for clean energy and advanced technologies78.
• The very rationale for joining the MSP is to secure access to minerals that are scarce or absent in India.

Statement III: The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Correct.
In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, giving the Central Government exclusive powers to auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical minerals. This was done to facilitate exploration and mining of critical minerals considered essential for national security and economic growth1.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I

“As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.”

• Correct.
  Bondholders are generally at lower risk compared to stockholders. Bonds offer fixed returns and have a higher claim on assets in case of bankruptcy, while stocks (equities) are more volatile and have residual claims12345.

Statement II

“Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.”

• Correct.
  Bondholders are creditors—they lend money to the company by purchasing bonds. Stockholders (shareholders) are partial owners of the company, with voting rights and a claim on residual profits2345.

Statement III

“For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.”

• Correct.
  In the event of liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders are paid before stockholders. Interest payments to bondholders are mandatory and prioritized over dividends to shareholders245.

Which Option Is Correct?

• Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.
  • Statement II explains why bondholders are at lower risk (they are creditors, not owners).
  • Statement III explains the priority in repayment, which also contributes to the lower risk for bondholders.

Correct answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Answer explanation:

Statement I: India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

• Correct.
  India has become the world’s largest market for equity options by contracts traded. In 2024, more than 120 billion index options contracts were traded on the NSE, dwarfing volumes on major global exchanges. This surge, especially since the pandemic, has been widely reported as a “boom” in options trading, led by retail investors and global firms125.

Statement II: India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

• Correct.
  India’s stock market has seen rapid growth in recent years, with its total market capitalization surpassing $5 trillion as of 2025. Multiple financial news sources and market data confirm that, at one point, India overtook Hong Kong to become the world’s fourth-largest equity market8.

Statement III: There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

• Incorrect.
• India has a robust regulatory framework for its securities markets. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body responsible for protecting investor interests, including warning small investors about the risks of options trading. SEBI has issued multiple public warnings, imposed trading restrictions, and taken action against unregistered financial advisors5. The recent imposition of stricter rules on options trading is a direct result of SEBI’s intervention to protect retail investors.

Answer Explanation:

Explanation:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Correct.
A circular economy minimizes waste, promotes reuse and recycling, and reduces dependency on raw material extraction and energy-intensive production. These aspects lower GHG emissions compared to the traditional linear economy (take-make-dispose).

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Correct.
The circular economy emphasizes recycling, remanufacturing, and refurbishing, which reduces the need for virgin raw materials.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Correct.
By designing products and systems with resource efficiency and closed-loop systems, waste generation in production and post-consumption is significantly minimized.

How II & III Explain Statement I:

• Less raw material usage (Statement II) means less mining, processing, and transportation — all of which are GHG-intensive activities.
• Less waste generation (Statement III) ensures that fewer materials end up in landfills, where decomposition or incineration releases methane and CO₂.

Thus, both Statements II and III contribute directly to reducing greenhouse gas emissions, and both explain Statement I.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

Correct.

• Capital receipts are those that either:
  • Create liability (e.g., borrowings),
  • Reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment of PSUs, recovery of loans).

They are not part of regular income or revenue. They are non-recurring and non-routine, and typically involve a future obligation or a loss of asset ownership.

Source:

• Indian Economic Survey
• Budget documents of the Government of India
• NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics (Chapter: Government Budget and the Economy)

Statement II: Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

Correct.

• Borrowings: Create future repayment liability → classified under capital receipts.
• Disinvestment: Selling shares of government in PSUs → reduces government’s asset holding → also a capital receipt.

Examples of Capital Receipts:

1. Borrowings from RBI or market
2. Recovery of loans
3. Disinvestment proceeds
4. External loans

Statement III: Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Incorrect.

• Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not capital.
• It does not create any liability for the government. In fact, it’s income from assets (loans given).
• Liabilities are created when the government borrows money, not when it earns it.

💡 Note:

Interest received by the government is revenue income and is recorded under non-tax revenue.

Interest paid by the government is an expenditure.

Answer Explanation:

Let’s examine each country’s current status with NATO as of 2025.

1. Austria

• Status: Not a member of NATO
• Reason: Austria has maintained a position of permanent neutrality since the Austrian State Treaty of 1955. This neutrality is enshrined in its constitution, and Austria has consistently chosen not to join military alliances, including NATO.
• Involveme nt with NATO: Austria participates in NATO’s Partnership for Peace (PfP) program but is not a full member.

2. Bulgaria

• Status: Member of NATO
• Date of Accession: March 29, 2004
• Details: Bulgaria joined NATO during its fifth enlargement round along with several Eastern European countries. As a full member, it participates in joint defense arrangements and NATO missions.

3. Croatia

• Status: Member of NATO
• Date of Accession: April 1, 2009
• Details: Croatia joined NATO during its sixth enlargement wave along with Albania. It is a fully participating member of the alliance.

4. Serbia

• Status: Not a member of NATO
• Reason: Serbia maintains military neutrality as a declared national policy. It has declined full NATO membership, partly due to historical reasons, including the 1999 NATO bombing of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro).
• Involvement with NATO: Serbia is part of NATO’s Partnership for Peace (PfP) program and maintains diplomatic relations but does not intend to join as a full member.

5. Sweden

• Status: Member of NATO
• Date of Accession: March 7, 2024
• Details: Sweden applied for NATO membership in 2022 following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. After ratification delays, Sweden became a full member in 2024, ending its long-standing policy of military non-alignment.

6. North Macedonia

Details: North Macedonia’s accession was delayed due to a naming dispute with Greece, resolved through the Prespa Agreement in 2018. It joined NATO as the 30th member.

Status: Member of NATO

Date of Accession: March 27, 2020

Answer Explanation:

To answer this question, we need to examine whether the Andes Mountains, the longest continental mountain range in the world, pass through each of the six countries listed.

The Andes stretch along the western coast of South America, running through multiple countries from north to south.

Let’s analyze each country:

1. Bolivia

• Yes, Andes pass through Bolivia.
• The Andes split into three branches in Bolivia: the Cordillera Occidental, Cordillera Central, and Cordillera Oriental.
• Source:
  • Encyclopedia Britannica – Andes Mountains: Bolivia

2. Brazil

• No, Andes do not pass through Brazil.
• Brazil lies east of the Andes and is separated by lowlands like the Amazon Basin.
• While Brazil shares proximity to Andean countries, it is not crossed by the mountain range.
• Source:
  • National Geographic – Andes Mountains Map

3. Colombia

• Yes, Andes pass through Colombia.
• The Andes divide into three branches (Cordilleras) in Colombia: Occidental, Central, and Oriental.
• Source:
  • Britannica – Andes in Colombia

4. Ecuador

• Yes, Andes pass through Ecuador.
• The range is known as the Sierra Region in Ecuador and contains volcanic peaks like Chimborazo and Cotopaxi.
• Source:
  • Ecuador Travel Guide – Andes Region

5. Paraguay

• No, Andes do not pass through Paraguay.
• Paraguay lies to the east of the Andes and has low-lying terrain without significant mountain ranges.
• Source:
  • CIA World Factbook – Paraguay
  • Britannica – Geography of Paraguay

6. Venezuela

• Yes, Andes pass through western Venezuela.
• The northernmost extension of the Andes enters Venezuela as the Cordillera de Mérida.
• Source:
• Britannica – Andes in Venezuela

Answer Explanation:

To answer this question, we need to determine whether the equator (0° latitude) passes through each of the listed water bodies.

The equator is an imaginary line that circles the Earth halfway between the North and South Poles and is located at 0° latitude. It passes through 13 countries and intersects various geographical features, including oceans, lakes, and rivers.

Let us analyze the geographical position of each water body:

1. Lake Tanganyika

Geographical Location:
Lake Tanganyika is located in East-Central Africa. It borders four countries: Burundi, Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Tanzania, and Zambia.

Latitude and Equator Proximity:
The northern tip of Lake Tanganyika lies very close to the equator and in fact, the equator passes through the lake, specifically at its northern section, near the town of Kalemie (in DRC).

Confirmation:

• Latitude range: Approximately 3°20′S to 8°48′S, but the equatorial region intersects the lake’s northernmost waters.
• Source: United Nations Environment Programme, CIA World Factbook, National Geographic maps.

Conclusion: The equator passes through Lake Tanganyika.

2. Lake Tonle Sap

Geographical Location:
Tonle Sap is the largest freshwater lake in Cambodia, located in Southeast Asia.

Latitude and Equator Proximity:
Cambodia lies entirely north of the equator.

• Latitude range of Tonle Sap: Approximately 12°N to 13°N

Conclusion: The equator does not pass through Lake Tonle Sap.

Source:

• Google Earth
• CIA World Factbook
• Encyclopedia Britannica – Tonle Sap

3. Patos Lagoon

Geographical Location:
Patos Lagoon (Lagoa dos Patos) is a large coastal lagoon in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, southern Brazil.

Latitude and Equator Proximity:
Brazil is a country through which the equator passes, but Patos Lagoon lies well south of the equator.

• Latitude of Patos Lagoon: Approximately 30°S

Conclusion: The equator does not pass through Patos Lagoon.

Source:

• Official Brazilian government maps
• Brazilian Institute of Geography and Statistics (IBGE)
• Encyclopedia Britannica – Patos Lagoon

Answer Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

Statement I: India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

• Correct.
  India accounted for over 75% of global turmeric production in 2022–23, producing approximately 11.61 lakh tonnes from an area of 3.24 lakh hectares. Additionally, India held more than 62% of the global turmeric trade share, exporting about 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at USD 207.45 million during the same period .

Statement II: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

• Correct.
  India cultivates over 30 varieties of turmeric, including notable ones like Erode, Sangli, Alleppey, Madras, Lakadong, and Rajendra Sonia. These varieties are primarily distinguished by their curcumin content, color, and aroma, and are often named after their regions of cultivation .

Statement III: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric-producing states in India.

Correct.

These states are among the top producers of turmeric in India. In 2022–23, the major turmeric-producing states included:

• Maharashtra: Approximately 3.67 lakh tonnes.

• Telangana: Approximately 1.56 lakh tonnes.

• Karnataka: Approximately 1.29 lakh tonnes.

• Tamil Nadu: Approximately 0.86 lakh tonnes.
  Other significant producers were Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and West Bengal .

Answer Explanation:

Continental drift is the theory that explains the movement of Earth’s continents over geological time. Several lines of evidence support this theory, including geological, paleontological, and structural similarities across now-separated continents. Let us analyze the given statements:

Statement I: The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

• Correct.
  One of the classic evidences supporting continental drift is the remarkable similarity between the Precambrian rock formations found along the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) and the western coast of Africa. These rock belts align almost perfectly, suggesting that these continents were once joined as part of the supercontinent Gondwana before drifting apart.

Statement II: The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

• Incorrect.
  While there are geological similarities between South America and Africa, the statement that gold deposits of Ghana specifically derive from the Brazilian plateau is not substantiated as direct evidence of continental drift. Mineral deposits and their sources are complex and often localized. There is no consensus or strong evidence directly linking Ghana’s gold deposits to Brazil in the context of continental drift.

Statement III: The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

• Correct.
• The Gondwana sedimentary sequences, including coal-bearing formations, are found not only in India but also in Africa, South America, Antarctica, Australia, and Madagascar. This similarity in sedimentary deposits across these southern landmasses is a key piece of evidence that they were once part of a contiguous landmass (Gondwana), which later broke apart due to continental drift.

Answer Explanation:

Let’s analyze each statement carefully:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

• Correct.
  Dust particles in the atmosphere are typically higher in subtropical and temperate regions due to the presence of large arid and semi-arid zones such as the Sahara Desert (subtropical) and other dust-prone regions like the Middle East, Central Asia, and parts of North America. These areas experience dry winds which lift dust into the atmosphere. In contrast, equatorial regions tend to have dense vegetation and high humidity which reduce dust, and polar regions have low dust due to ice cover and minimal exposed dry surfaces.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

• Incorrect.
  
• Subtropical regions are known for dry winds, such as the trade winds and winds descending in subtropical highs, which contribute to arid conditions and deserts. Temperate regions can also experience dry winds depending on local climatic conditions (for example, the westerlies passing over dry continental interiors). Hence, it is inaccurate to say subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Answer Explanation:

Let’s analyze the two statements in the context of January in the Northern Hemisphere:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

• Correct.
  Isotherms (lines of equal temperature) reflect temperature gradients. In winter (January), landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere cool down much faster than the oceans due to their lower heat capacity. This causes the isotherms to bend equatorward over the colder land areas (since temperatures are lower) and poleward over the relatively warmer oceans (since temperatures are higher compared to the adjacent land). This pattern creates a distinctive shape of isotherms during winter.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

• Correct.
  Due to the high specific heat capacity of water, oceans retain heat longer than land. During winter months (January), the ocean surfaces remain warmer compared to the rapidly cooled land areas. Therefore, the air above oceans is warmer than that above adjacent landmass.

Explanation of Relationship:

Because the ocean air remains warmer, the isotherms bend poleward over oceans (indicating warmer temperatures extending further north) and equatorward over land (indicating colder temperatures extending southward). This phenomenon makes Statement II the reason behind the pattern described in Statement I.

Answer Explanation:

Let’s analyze each statement carefully in the context of permeability and porosity of rocks:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

• Correct.
  Chalk is a permeable rock because it allows water to pass through due to its porous structure. Conversely, clay has very small particle size and tends to be impermeable or least permeable, restricting water movement through it.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

• Correct.
  Chalk is indeed porous, containing many tiny spaces or pores, which allow it to absorb and transmit water. This porosity contributes to its permeability.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

• Incorrect.
  Clay is porous, but its pores are extremely small and tightly packed. This results in very low permeability, but it is not completely non-porous. The statement that clay is “not at all porous” is inaccurate.

Relationship of Statements:

Statement III is incorrect, so it does not support Statement I.

Statement II (chalk is porous) correctly explains why chalk is permeable, supporting Statement I.

Answer Explanation:

The Earth’s atmosphere plays a crucial role in maintaining surface temperatures that support life. The three statements relate to fundamental concepts about the atmosphere and its thermal regulation capabilities.

Statement I: Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

• This is correct.
  The Earth receives solar radiation which heats its surface. Without an atmosphere, there would be no medium to trap the heat. As a result, the heat absorbed during the day would rapidly radiate back into space at night. Consequently, the average temperature of Earth’s surface would be about -18°C (0°F), which is well below the freezing point of water. This makes the atmosphere essential to maintaining conditions suitable for life. This fact is supported by climate science and models of Earth’s energy balance.

Statement II: Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

• This is correct.
  The atmosphere contains greenhouse gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide. These gases absorb the infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface after it has been warmed by the Sun. The gases then re-radiate the heat in all directions, including back towards the Earth’s surface, effectively trapping heat. This natural process is called the greenhouse effect and it keeps the planet’s average surface temperature around 15°C, which is suitable for sustaining life. Without this heat-trapping mechanism, Earth would be a frozen wasteland.

Statement III: Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

• This is correct.
  Carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with other greenhouse gases, has molecular properties that allow it to absorb long-wave infrared radiation emitted by Earth’s surface. CO₂’s ability to absorb and re-emit radiation makes it a key contributor to the greenhouse effect. Increased levels of CO₂ enhance this effect, leading to global warming concerns. This statement is well-established in atmospheric science and environmental studies.

Additional Context:

• The atmosphere acts as a thermal blanket that moderates Earth’s surface temperature.
• The greenhouse effect is vital; without it, Earth’s surface would be inhospitable for current forms of life.
• Changes in the concentration of greenhouse gases influence Earth’s climate and temperature balance.
•  

Website Link: What Is the Atmosphere? | Center for Science Education,  What Would Earth’s Temperature Be Like Without an Atmosphere? | WIRED, Temperature of Earth without Atmosphere | Physics and Universe

Answer Explanation:

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at the development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds. Let’s analyze both statements carefully:

Statement I: It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

• Correct.
  The rural poor, especially small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, predominantly own indigenous breeds of cattle that generally have low productivity. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission targets these communities to improve livelihoods by enhancing the productivity and conservation of indigenous cattle, thereby supporting rural socio-economic upliftment.

Statement II: It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

• Correct.
  The mission focuses on the scientific breeding, conservation, and development of indigenous cattle breeds, particularly those that are well adapted to local conditions. The aim is to increase milk production and improve genetic resources in a sustainable way, combining modern scientific approaches with traditional knowledge.

Additional Details:

• The mission was launched under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
• It emphasizes developing “Gokul” breed — a high-yielding indigenous breed.
• It seeks to improve the genetic makeup of indigenous cattle through selective breeding.
• The scheme promotes breed improvement, conservation, and sustainable utilization.
• The mission benefits small farmers by increasing milk yield, reducing dependence on exotic breeds, and preserving indigenous genetic resources.

Website Link: ,  MissionPress Release: Press Information Bureau , Press Release: Press Information Bureau, RASHTRIYA GOKUL MISSION | ,  Department of animal husbandry and dairying

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all states.

Incorrect.
Under Article 243B of the Constitution of India, the Panchayati Raj system shall be constituted in every state at three levels:

• Gram Panchayat (village level)
• Panchayat Samiti (intermediate or block level)
• Zila Parishad (district level)

However, the intermediate level is only mandatory for states with populations exceeding 20 lakh. States with smaller populations are exempted. Hence, Panchayats at the intermediate level do not exist in all states.

Examples of exempted states: Goa, Sikkim, some Northeastern states.

Statement II: To be eligible to be a member of a panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

Incorrect.
As per Article 243F, the minimum age to contest or become a member of a Panchayat (at any level) is 21 years, unless a higher age is prescribed by the state law (which most states have not done). There is no constitutional provision mandating the minimum age to be 30 years.

Statement III: The chief minister of a state constitutes a commission to review the financial position of panchayats…

Incorrect.
As per Article 243I, the Governor of the state (not the Chief Minister) is mandated to constitute a State Finance Commission (SFC) every five years. The SFC is responsible for reviewing the financial position of the Panchayats and recommending:

• The distribution of state revenues between the state and Panchayats
• Grants-in-aid to Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State
• Measures to improve Panchayat financial health

The Chief Minister may receive the report, but does not constitute the commission.

Website Link: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, laxmikant , Constitutional Law of India – Chapter 22 – The Panchayats

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: It is a regional organization consisting of seven member states till January 2025.

Correct.
BIMSTEC currently has seven member countries and no change in membership has been announced or expected before January 2025.
Members:

1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Myanmar
4. Sri Lanka
5. Thailand
6. Nepal
7. Bhutan

Thus, the statement is factually correct.

Statement II: It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka declaration, 1999.

Incorrect.

• The BIMSTEC was formally established on 6 June 1997 as BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic Cooperation).
• The Bangkok Declaration of 1997 marked its formation.
• Myanmar joined in 1997, and Nepal and Bhutan joined later in 2004.
• Dhaka hosted the 2nd Summit in 2004, but there is no founding Dhaka Declaration of 1999.

Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement III: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member states of BIMSTEC.

Incorrect.

• Founding members (1997): Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand
• Nepal joined later in 2004, not at the time of formation.
  So, Nepal is not a founding member.

Thus, the statement is incorrect.

Statement IV: In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Correct.

• As part of sectoral cooperation, BIMSTEC distributes leadership of different priority areas among member countries.
• India is the lead country for the ‘Tourism’ sector within BIMSTEC.

Thus, this statement is correct.

Website Link: BIMSTEC Official Website, Tourism – Home-The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic, 2025 – BIMSTEC, India’s Engagement with BIMSTEC: Contributions and Priorities – Modern Diplomacy

The Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award instituted by the Government of India in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. It is given to individuals or institutions for their contributions in the fields of:

• Social, economic, and political transformation through non-violence and Gandhian methods.

Composition of the Jury for Gandhi Peace Prize:

As per official sources from the Ministry of Culture (Government of India), the jury to select the recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize is composed of the following four eminent persons:

1. Prime Minister of India (Chairperson of the jury)
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha
4. One eminent person (nominated by the Prime Minister)

Note:

• The President of India is not a member of this jury.
• The Prime Minister chairs the jury and plays a central role.

Link:  https://www.mea.gov.in/press-releases.htm?dtl/33693/gandhi+peace+prize+for+the+Year+2019+announced

GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation) is India’s satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) jointly developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India (AAI) to improve the accuracy, integrity, and availability of GPS signals over the Indian airspace.

Statement I: It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

Correct
GAGAN enhances the positional accuracy of GPS by correcting signal errors using a network of reference ground stations. It provides:

• Accuracy: GPS position error reduced to within 5 meters.
• Integrity: High confidence level in the GPS signal for aviation safety.

Thus, this is true.

Statement II: It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

Correct
GAGAN enables:

• Precision approach and landing procedures at airports.
• Increased safety and efficiency of air traffic operations.
• Reduced separation between aircraft, enabling more flights.

So, this is also true.

Statement III: It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Incorrect
Though GAGAN was primarily developed for aviation, it has applications beyond aviation:

• Road navigation
• Rail safety systems
• Maritime positioning
• Surveying
• Disaster management
• Agriculture (precision farming)

Hence, this statement is incorrect.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/gagan?from=mdr

https://www.isro.gov.in/satellitenavign.html

Statement I: “Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.”
This statement is correct. The AI Action Summit held at the Grand Palais in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The summit followed the trajectory of global cooperation on artificial intelligence set by the Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023) and the Seoul Summit (South Korea, 2024). These previous summits laid the foundation for international agreements on AI governance, ethics, and safety.

Statement II: “Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.”
This statement is incorrect. While the Paris AI Summit did culminate in a declaration on “Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet,” both the United States and the United Kingdom chose not to sign the declaration. Over 50 countries signed the agreement, including India, France, and several developing and developed nations, but the absence of the US and UK was widely noted in media reports and summit documentation.

Conclusion:
Only Statement I is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is (a) I only.

Sources:

• UNESCO and France AI Summit press release, February 2025
• The Brussels Times: Paris AI Summit report (2025)
• BBC News: Coverage of AI declaration and non-signatories (February 2025)

https://www.theguardian.com/technology/2025/feb/11/us-uk-paris-ai-summit-artificial-intelligence-declaration

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/science-technology/ai-action-summit-india-china-over-50-other-countries-sign-declaration-on-inclusive-sustainable-ai

Let’s evaluate each of the four pairs:

1. International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026

Correct

The United Nations General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. This initiative aims to highlight the crucial role women play in agriculture and to address the challenges they face in the sector. Medium+9USDA+9FAOHome+9

2. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027

Correct

In February 2024, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. The year is intended to promote sustainable tourism practices that contribute to economic growth, employment, and cultural preservation. Xinhua News+2United Nations+2FAOHome+2UNOOSA

3. International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025

Correct

The UN General Assembly declared 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This designation emphasizes the importance of fostering peace and trust among nations to achieve sustainable development and human rights. Xinhua News

4. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029

Correct

In December 2024, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. This observance aims to raise global awareness about the potential hazards of asteroids and the importance of planetary defense measures. UN Official Document System+2Asteroid Day+2United Nations+2UNOOSA

https://www.fao.org/newsroom/detail/fao-welcomes-the-celebration-of-the-international-year-of-the-woman-farmer-in-2026/en

https://www.accessibletourism.org/?i=enat.en.news.2376

https://digitallibrary.un.org/record/4043298?ln=en

https://www.un.org/en/observances/asteroid-awareness-year

Let’s evaluate each statement:

Statement I: “16th BRICS summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.”

Correct
The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russia, from October 22 to 24, 2024, under the Chairship of Russia. Kremlin

Statement II: “Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.”

Correct
Indonesia officially became a full member of BRICS in January 2025, making it the first Southeast Asian country to join the bloc. Asia Society+2Wikipedia+2The Diplomat+2

Statement III: “The theme of the 16th BRICS summit was strengthening multiculturalism for just global development and security.”

Incorrect
The actual theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”, not “multiculturalism”. SDG Knowledge Hub+4Kremlin+4International Banker+4

Link:

https://eastasiaforum.org/2025/02/04/indonesias-bold-step-into-brics-and-beyond

https://www.europarl.europa.eu/thinktank/en/document/EPRS_ATA(2024)766243

https://sdg.iisd.org/events/16th-brics-summit/

Let’s evaluate each statement one by one in light of The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:

Statement I:
“The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.”
Incorrect
→ The Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes public servants in India and abroad.
→ If a public servant of the Indian government is posted outside India, he/she still falls under the Lokpal’s purview.
Reference: Section 14, Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

Statement II:
“The chairperson or a member shall not be a member of the Parliament or a member of the legislature of any the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its chairperson.”
 Incorrect
→ It’s true that a chairperson/member must not be an MP/MLA.
→ However, it is not necessary that the chairperson be the Chief Justice of India (CJI) or a former CJI.
→ The Act provides that the chairperson may be:

• A former Chief Justice of India, or
• A former Judge of the Supreme Court, or
• An eminent person with special knowledge in anti-corruption law, public administration, etc.

Reference: Section 3 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

Statement III:
“The chairperson or a member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.”
Correct
→ This is clearly stated in the Act.
Reference: Section 3(2) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

Statement IV:
“Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.”
 Incorrect
→ Lokpal can inquire into allegations against the sitting Prime Minister, but with certain restrictions:

• No inquiry can be made without full bench approval.
• Certain matters (like international relations, internal security) are excluded.
• Proceedings are held in-camera.
• If the Lokpal decides not to proceed, records are kept confidential.

Reference: Section 14(1) and (2), Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

https://documents.doptcirculars.nic.in/D2/D02ser/InvitationOfApplicationForChairpersonAndMembersOfLokpal_English.pdf

https://lokpal.gov.in/pdfs/FreqAQs.pdf

https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/407_06_2013-AVD-IV-09012014_0.pdf

Background of Kho Kho World Cup:

• Event: First-ever Kho Kho World Cup
• Organizer: International Kho Kho Federation (IKKF)
• Dates: 20–22 January 2024
• Venue: Shree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex, Pune, Maharashtra, India
  • Not Delhi, hence Statement I is incorrect.

Statement I: “The event was held in Delhi, India”

• Incorrect
• Factual Correction: The event was held in Pune, Maharashtra, not Delhi.
• Venue Specifics: The indoor stadium at Balewadi Sports Complex hosted the matches.

Statement II: “Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the world champion in men category.”

• Correct
• Factual Confirmation:
  • Final match: India (Men) vs Nepal (Men)
  • Result: India won with a score of 78-40.
  • Significance: India became the first men’s Kho Kho world champion.

Statement III: “Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the world champion in women category.”

• Correct
• Factual Confirmation:
  • Final match: India (Women) vs Nepal (Women)
  • Result: India won with a score of 54-36.
  • Significance: India became the first women’s Kho Kho world champion.

Conceptual Importance:

The event had support from Sports Authority of India and was widely covered to popularize Kho Kho globally.

Why this event matters:

• First global-level representation of Kho Kho, a traditional Indian sport.

• It signified India’s soft power projection and efforts to globalize indigenous sports.

Helped formalize the sport internationally under the International Kho Kho Federation.

Participation:

• Total 16 teams participated (8 men’s and 8 women’s).

Participating countries included: India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Kenya, England, South Africa, Sri Lanka, and Malaysia.

Promotion and Support:

The event had support from Sports Authority of India and was widely covered to popularize Kho Kho globally..

Statement I:

“In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepominiachtchi.”

• The 45th Chess Olympiad took place in 2024 in Budapest, Hungary.
• The Olympiad is a team event, not an individual match final.
• India won the gold medal in the Open section, but the victory is for the team, not an individual final match.
• Gukesh Dommaraju was a key player for India, but there was no final match between Gukesh and Jan Nepomniachtchi.
• Jan Nepomniachtchi is a top Russian player but was not individually defeated by Gukesh in a final of the Olympiad.
• The phrase “world’s youngest winner” is misleading here because the Olympiad is a team event, and “winner” applies to the team, not an individual.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II:

“Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the records of becoming world’s youngest ever grandmaster.”

• Correct fact: Abhimanyu Mishra became the youngest ever chess grandmaster at the age of 12 years, 4 months, 25 days on June 30, 2021.
• He broke the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.
• This is an undisputed fact, widely acknowledged and recorded by Guinness World Records.

Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Link:

https://www.dw.com/en/indias-gukesh-becomes-worlds-youngest-chess-champion/a-71038565

https://www.chess.com/news/view/abhimanyu-mishra-youngest-grandmaster-in-chess-history

https://kids.guinnessworldrecords.com/records/young-achievers/abhimanyu-mishra

Answer Explanation:

Statement I:

Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

• This is correct.
• Rare earth elements such as yttrium (Y), europium (Eu), terbium (Tb), and lanthanum (La) are essential components in the manufacture of flat panel displays, LED screens, and computer monitors.
• These elements are used in phosphors and other materials that produce the vibrant colors on the screens.

Statement II:

Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

• This is correct.
• Several rare earth elements, notably europium, terbium, and yttrium, exhibit phosphorescence—the ability to emit light after being energized.
• This property makes them highly valuable for phosphors in display screens, fluorescent lamps, and LEDs.

How Statement II Explains Statement I:

The use of rare earth elements in screens (Statement I) is directly because these elements have phosphorescent properties (Statement II), which allow them to emit light in various colors essential for producing clear, bright images in TVs and monitors.

Answer Explanation:

Statement I: “Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.”

• Incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a “future ready” railway system by 2030, not 2028. Prepp

Statement II: “‘Kavach’ is an automatic train protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.”

• Correct: Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by Indian Railways, developed by the Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industry partners, not Germany. Prepp+1Wikipedia+1

Statement III: “‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.”

• Correct: The Kavach system utilizes RFID tags placed on the track to enable precise train location tracking. These tags are installed in station sections, block sections, and near signals to facilitate communication between the train and trackside components. Wikipedia+4Indian Railways+4IRISet+4

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2112824

https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1797575#:~:text=Indian%20Railways%20have%20prepared%20a,Railways%20in%20freight%20to%2045%25.

Let’s analyze each mission in terms of their involvement in microgravity research:

1. Axiom-4

• Axiom Space is a private space company that conducts commercial space missions.
• Axiom-4 is a crewed mission to the International Space Station (ISS), supporting various scientific experiments in microgravity.
• It facilitates microgravity research by enabling researchers to conduct experiments onboard the ISS.

2. SpaDex

• SpaDex (Space Debris Experiment) is a payload onboard SpaceX CRS-26 mission.
• It is designed to test the use of space debris capture technologies.
• SpaDex is a technology demonstration mission and does not primarily focus on microgravity research.

3. Gaganyaan

• Gaganyaan is India’s first human spaceflight mission.
• It aims to send Indian astronauts into low Earth orbit.
• The mission includes conducting microgravity experiments during the flight, supporting research in life sciences, materials, and other fields.

https://www.isro.gov.in/Indian_microgravity_research_Axiom4_mission.html?utm_source=chatgpt.com

https://www.indiatoday.in/science/gaganyaan-mission/story/isro-signs-new-agreement-to-boost-space-medicine-research-for-gaganyaan-mission-2715137-2025-04-25?utm_source=chatgpt.com

https://www.isro.gov.in/POEM_4_Payloads_spadex.html?utm_source=chatgpt.com

Let’s analyze each pair carefully:

1. Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft

• Correct
• The Dornier-228 is a twin-turboprop utility aircraft widely used by the Indian Navy for maritime patrol, reconnaissance, and surveillance missions.
• It is suitable for coastal and maritime surveillance, making this match correct.

2. IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft

• Incorrect
• The Ilyushin IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft designed primarily for cargo and troop transport, aerial refueling, and firefighting.
• It is not a supersonic combat aircraft; it is a large, slow transport plane.

3. C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft

• Correct
• The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift missions, carrying troops, cargo, and heavy equipment.
• This pair is correctly matched.

https://www.ga-ats.com/en/do228

https://joinindiancoastguard.cdac.in/air_craft

https://www.boeing.com/defense/c-17-globemaster-iii#overview

Answer Explanation:

• The artificial method of causing rainfall, known as cloud seeding, involves dispersing substances into the atmosphere that serve as cloud condensation nuclei or ice nuclei to encourage precipitation.
• Silver iodide (AgI) is widely used because its crystalline structure is similar to ice, helping in the formation of ice crystals in clouds, which promotes rainfall.
• Potassium iodide (KI) is often used alongside silver iodide to enhance the seeding process.
• This technique is employed to increase rainfall, which can help reduce air pollution by washing out pollutants from the atmosphere.

https://greenly.earth/en-gb/blog/ecology-news/what-is-cloud-seeding-or-artificial-rain

https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-is-cloud-seeding-the-science-behind-artificial-rain-that-delhis-air-needs-2635857-2024-11-19

Answer Explanation:

Statement I:

The exercise of pardoning power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

• This statement is correct.
• The President of India’s pardoning power under Article 72 of the Constitution is not absolute and is subject to judicial review on limited grounds such as arbitrariness, mala fide exercise, or violation of constitutional principles.
• The Supreme Court has ruled that while the President has wide discretion, courts can examine the exercise of this power to ensure it is not arbitrary or unreasonable.
• Example: The Supreme Court in cases like Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) affirmed that judicial review of mercy petitions is permissible.

Statement II:

The President can exercise this power without the advice of the central government.

• This statement is incorrect.
• Under Article 74(1), the President must act according to the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which means the pardoning power is exercised on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
• Though the President has discretionary power in some constitutional matters, the exercise of mercy petitions is normally done based on the government’s advice.
• Therefore, the President cannot independently grant pardons or reprieves without the government’s recommendation.

Source link: https://articles.manupatra.com/article-details/Presidential-Pardon-Can-it-be-Subjected-to-Judicial-Scrutiny

Statement I:

On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

• Correct.
• According to Article 94(1) of the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not vacate office upon dissolution of the House.
• The Speaker continues in office until the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha and ceases to hold office immediately before that first meeting.
• This provision ensures continuity of the office and allows the Speaker to perform certain functions during the interim.

Statement II:

According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

• Incorrect.
• The Constitution does not require the Speaker to resign from their political party on election.
• However, the Speaker is expected to be impartial and often withdraws from active party politics, but this is a convention, not a constitutional mandate.
• Additionally, the anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule) exempts the Speaker from disqualification on grounds of defection but does not compel resignation from the party.

Statement III:

The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

• Correct.
• As per Article 94(1), the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all members of the Lok Sabha.
• Also, there must be a minimum of 14 days’ notice before such a resolution can be moved.
• This ensures due process and stability in the office.

https://www.constitutionofindia.net/articles/article-94-vacation-and-resignation-of-and-removal-from-the-offices-of-speaker-and-deputy-speaker/

Answer explanation:

Statement I Analysis
Claim:
Disqualification under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) is decided by the President in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Ministers.
Factual Clarification:
• The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
• It deals with disqualification of members on the ground of defection.
• Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule states:
“If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha) or the Speaker (for Lok Sabha), and his decision shall be final.”
Supreme Court Verdict:
• In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) case, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of this provision, declaring that:
o The Speaker/Chairman acts as a tribunal while deciding defection matters.
o However, their decision is subject to judicial review under Article 136 and 226/227.
Hence, Statement I is factually incorrect on two counts:
• The authority is not the President, but the Speaker or Chairman.
• The Council of Ministers has no role in this decision.

Statement II Analysis
Claim:
The word ‘political party’ does not appear in the Constitution of India.
Factual Clarification:
• The word ‘political party’ was indeed added to the Constitution through the Tenth Schedule, introduced in 1985.
• Paragraph 1 of the Tenth Schedule defines:
“Political party means a party registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.”
Therefore, the word ‘political party’ is very much part of the Constitution (from 1985 onwards), though not originally.

https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S10.pdf

Answer Explanation:

Statement I:

If any question arises as to whether a member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

• Incorrect.
• According to Article 103(2) and the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, the authority to decide questions of disqualification under the anti-defection law lies with the Speaker or Chairman of the respective House, not the President.
• The President does not play any role in deciding disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
• The Speaker’s decision is considered final, but subject to judicial review by courts.
• The President’s role mentioned here is not accurate.

Statement II:

There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

• Correct.
• The term ‘political party’ is not explicitly defined or mentioned anywhere in the original Constitution of India.
• The concept and term have evolved through laws (like the Representation of People Act, 1951) and judicial interpretations.
• The anti-defection law in the Tenth Schedule refers to “any political party” but the Constitution itself does not define or mention this term directly.

http://arthapedia.in/index.php/Minor_Minerals#:~:text=The%20central%20government%20has%20the,following%20minerals%20as%20minor%20minerals

Answer Explanation:

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a landmark environmental regulation enacted by the European Union (EU). It aims to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030, with the broader goal of restoring all ecosystems in need by 2050. The law is a key component of the EU’s Biodiversity Strategy for 2030 and the European Green Deal. It sets legally binding restoration targets for various ecosystems, including forests, wetlands, rivers, grasslands, and marine environments. Member states are required to develop and implement national restoration plans to meet these targets. The regulation entered into force on 18 August 2024. oneforest.eu+13European Parliament+13Etifor+13Wikipedia+1Earth.Org+1Earth.Org+5oneforest.eu+5Environment+5IFAWreuters.com+3Wikipedia+3Environment+3

Summary:

• Organization Responsible: European Union
• Law Enacted: Nature Restoration Law (Regulation (EU) 2024/1991)
• Date of Enactment: 18 August 2024
• Key Objectives:
  • Restore 20% of EU’s land and sea areas by 2030
  • Restore all ecosystems in need by 2050
  • Set binding restoration targets for various ecosystems
  • Require member states to develop national restoration plansEarth.Org+2Wikipedia+2de.wikipedia.org+2theguardian.com

https://environment.ec.europa.eu/topics/nature-and-biodiversity/nature-restoration-regulation_en

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts (80,000 crore -60,000 crore = 20,000)

Statement 2 is correct: Fiscal Deficit; The Government budget shows borrowing of Rs 10,000 crore

Statement 3 is correct: Primary Deficit: Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment (10,000 crore -6,000 crore =4,000 crore)

Answer Explanation:

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal transport project (comprising ship, rail, and road routes) to facilitate the movement of freight between India, Iran, Central Asia, Russia, and Europe.

Key Features of INSTC:

• Founding Members: India, Iran, and Russia initiated the agreement in 2000, later joined by over a dozen other countries.
• Route:
  • Starts from India (Mumbai)
  • Ships goods to Bandar Abbas port in Iran
  • Uses Iranian rail and road network to reach the Caspian Sea
  • From there, enters Azerbaijan or directly to Russia
  • Extends to Central Asia and further into Europe

Purpose:

• Shortens the freight route by 30-40% time and cost compared to the traditional Suez Canal route.
• Strengthens India’s connectivity with Eurasia.
• Supports geostrategic objectives including energy imports and regional trade influence.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

• b. India to Central Asia via China – This refers to alternate corridors like the China-Central Asia route, not INSTC.
• c. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar – This relates to India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway, not INSTC.
• d. India to Europe through Azerbaijan – Azerbaijan is part of the corridor but not the starting or direct route; the primary corridor goes via Iran.

https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1892221#:~:text=Ministry%20of%20Ports%2C%20Shipping%20and%20Waterways%2C%20GoI%2C%20in%20association,Petersburg%20in%20Russia.

Answer Explanation:

Let us evaluate both statements individually and then together.

Statement I:

“Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former (Brazil) produces more ethanol than the latter (USA).”

• Incorrect.
  The United States is the largest producer of ethanol in the world.
  • As per global energy statistics (as of 2023 and consistent in previous years), USA accounts for about 50-55% of global ethanol production.
  • Brazil is the second-largest, with about 30-35% share.

Statement II:

“Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.”

• Correct.
  • In the USA, ethanol is primarily produced from corn.
  • In Brazil, ethanol is predominantly made from sugarcane due to its high sucrose content and favorable climate.
  • This difference in feedstock is a well-established fact in global biofuel studies.

Link between the statements:

• Since Statement I is factually incorrect and Statement II is correct, we cannot say that Statement II explains Statement I.

https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1892221#:~:text=Ministry%20of%20Ports%2C%20Shipping%20and%20Waterways%2C%20GoI%2C%20in%20association,Petersburg%20in%20Russia.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1517838216310346

https://afdc.energy.gov/data

Answer Explanation:

The question refers to wet-bulb temperature and a World Bank report warning that India could be among the first countries where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C — a threshold considered extremely dangerous for human survival.

Understanding Wet-Bulb Temperature:

• Wet-bulb temperature is a measure of heat + humidity — specifically, the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by evaporating water into it.
• It reflects how effectively the human body can cool itself through sweating and evaporation.

What happens at 35°C wet-bulb?

• At or above 35°C wet-bulb, even a healthy person resting in the shade without clothing cannot maintain a stable core body temperature, leading to heat stress, organ failure, and death within hours.
• It’s not just the air temperature but the high humidity that makes sweating ineffective.

Now evaluate the statements:

Statement I:

“Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.”

• While these impacts are valid effects of climate change, they are not directly linked to wet-bulb temperatures.
• This statement is generically true for climate-related risks but does not address the implication of wet-bulb thresholds crossing 35°C.
• So, not the best reflection of the World Bank’s warning in this context.

Statement II:

“The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.”

• Correct.
• This directly reflects the implication of wet-bulb temperature rising: it affects thermoregulation, perspiration, and biological survival.
• This was the central concern in the World Bank’s warning.

https://climateknowledgeportal.worldbank.org/sites/default/files/country-profiles/15503-WB_India%20Country%20Profile-WEB.pdf

Answer Explanation:

To solve this question, we must understand the difference between Fiscal Deficit and Primary Deficit.

Key Concepts:

1. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Creating Capital Receipts)
2. Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

Given Data:

• Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
• Non-debt Creating Capital Receipts = ₹10,000 crores → used only in fiscal deficit calculation (already included)
• Interest Liabilities (Interest Payments) = ₹1,500 crores

Primary Deficit Calculation:

Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments

               =50,000−1,500=48,500 crores

Statement I:
“It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing states to enhance educational outcomes.”
Correct
• The 15th Finance Commission did indeed recommend ₹4,800 crores as incentive grants for education from 2022-23 to 2025-26.
• This amount was aimed at improving school education outcomes in states by rewarding better performance on indicators such as learning outcomes, digital access, dropout reduction, etc.
Source: FC-XV Final Report, Volume I

Statement II:
“45% of the net proceeds of union taxes are to be shared with states.”
Incorrect
• The 15th Finance Commission retained the share of states in the divisible pool of taxes at 41%, not 45%.
• This was down from 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission, adjusted due to the creation of Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh.
Source: FC-XV Final Report, Chapter 2

Statement III:
“₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all states for carrying out agricultural reforms.”
Correct
• The Commission allocated ₹45,000 crores as performance-based grants for agriculture, rural development, and reforms.
• This amount was linked to measurable reform criteria, such as:
o Agricultural marketing reforms
o Water use efficiency
o Ease of doing agribusiness
o Land reforms, etc.
Source: FC-XV Final Report, Volume I

Statement IV:
“It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.”
Correct
• The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the “tax effort” criterion in the horizontal devolution formula, giving 2.5% weight.
• This criterion rewards states with higher own tax revenue relative to their GSDP, encouraging fiscal responsibility and mobilisation of internal resources. Source: FC-XV Final Report, Horizontal Devolution Criteria Table

https://tnbudget.tn.gov.in/tnweb_files/CFC/15th_FinanceCom_ENG_2021.pdf

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a global development cooperative owned by 189 member countries. As the largest development bank in the world, it supports the World Bank Group’s mission by providing loans, guarantees, risk management products, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, as well as by coordinating responses to regional and global challenges. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: IBRD joins with IDA, our fund for the poorest countries, to form the World Bank.  They work closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and the public and private sectors in developing countries to reduce poverty and build shared prosperity.

Statement 3 is correct: It is Created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II

https://www.worldbank.org/en/who-we-are/ibrd

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: NEFT processes transactions in batches at designated intervals throughout the day, which means the settlement can occur within a few hours but may vary depending on the timing of the transaction. RTGS offers real-time settlement, ensuring that funds are transferred and settled instantly once the transaction is processed. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: With effect from July 01, 2019, RBI has waived the processing charges levied by it for RTGS transactions. Banks may pass on the benefit to its customers.

NEFT does not levy charges for inward transactions, i.e., when funds are credited to the beneficiary’s account. This makes it cost-effective for receiving money while  

Statement 3 is correct: The NEFT system operates 24×7, including on weekends and holidays while RTGS transfers initiated through online banking platforms (like internet banking or mobile apps) are generally available 24/7, including Sundays but Some banks may have cut-off times for RTGS transactions, particularly for branch-based transactions, meaning transactions initiated after a certain time may not be processed until the next business day.  

https://www.bankbazaar.com/ifsc/difference-neft-rtgs-imps.html

https://www.rbi.org.in/commonman/english/Scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=275#:~:text=With%20a%20view%20to%20rationalise,no%20charge%20to%20be%20levied.&text=Banks%20may%20decide%20to%20charge,the%20rates%20prescribed%20by%20RBI

Explanation:

Exp: India’s digital payments movement is gaining global attention, with UPI and RuPay expanding across borders. UPI is now operational in seven countries: UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, and Mauritius.

Advancing Cashless India

Explanation:

The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, is transforming India’s energy landscape with a bold vision to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) intends to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairing of solar roof top systems at grass root level.

To create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians.

Guidelines for PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli YojanaPM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana

Explanation:

Statement I: An ordinance can amend any central act.

Correct.
Under Article 123 of the Constitution, the President can promulgate an ordinance when Parliament is not in session, and such an ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance can amend or repeal any existing central act.

Statement II: An ordinance can abridge a fundamental right.

Incorrect.
As per Article 13(2) of the Constitution:

“The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part (Part III – Fundamental Rights)…”

Since an ordinance is treated as a law under Article 13, it cannot violate fundamental rights. If it does, it can be struck down by the courts.
Example: RC Cooper case (Bank Nationalisation case), 1970 – the court held that ordinances are subject to judicial review.

Statement III: An ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Correct.
There is no constitutional bar on an ordinance being made retrospective. It can be given effect from a past date, just like a regular law passed by Parliament.
This was upheld in T. Venkata Reddy v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1985).

Explanation:

The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh :: History

Itanagar is named after Ita fort meaning fort of bricks, build in the 14th century AD.

Wildlife | Department of Environment, Forest & Climate Change | Govt. of Arunachal Pradesh

There are 13 Wildlife Sanctuaries, 2 National Parks, 3 Tiger Elephant Reserves, 2 Elephant Reserves, 9 Community Reserves and 1 Biosphere Reserve in the State of Arunachal Pradesh.

Nagaland

THE CONSTITUTION (THIRTEENTH AMENDMENT) ACT, 1962

Tripura

After merger Tripura became a Part ‘C’ State. On reorganization of the states, effected in November, 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory with an Advisory Committee to aid and advise the Chief Commissioner. Thereafter in place of the Advisory Committee, a Territorial Council was formed through the adult franchise on 15th August, 1957. On July 1, 1963, the Tripura Territorial Council was dissolved and the Legislative Assembly with the existing members of the Territorial Council was formed. On January 21, 1972 Tripura became full-fledged State by the Act of Parliament called the North Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971.

Explanation:

The Inter-State Council

The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28th May 1990

Zonal Council

Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.

Explanation:

Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor – Constitution of India

If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

Explanation:

Article 50: Separation of judiciary from executive – Constitution of India

The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Fundamental Duties

India has a rich heritage of composite culture. This is summarily recited in Article 51A(f) of the Constitution of India which makes it every citizen’s fundamental duty to value and preserve our composite culture

Article 24 in Constitution of India

24. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Explanation:

FIFTH SCHEDULE

Fifth Schedule Areas | Social welfare

Explanation:

Selection for the post of Chairman, National Automotive Board(NAB).

National Automotive Board (NAB) is an autonomous society under Department of Heavy Industry, Ministry of Heavy Industry & Public Enterprises. Govt. of India.

Shri Bhanu Pratap Singh Verma lays the foundation stone for Coir Showroom at Konch, Jalaun District, Uttar Pradesh.

Coir Board comes under the Ministry of MSME, Govt. of India.

Information of National Centre for Trade Information

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) has been setup by Ministry of Commerce and Industry to create institutional mechanism for collection and dissemination of trade data and for improvement of business information services.

Explanation:

The Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution can be amended, along with other provisions related to the federal structure, through a special majority of Parliament and the consent of half of the state legislatures.

The Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended through the Indian Parliament by enacting a law under Article 158 of the Constitution.

The extent of the executive power of a state can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, along with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority

Powers & Functions of the Governor Under Constitution of India

Explanation:

Article 361 in Constitution of India

Article 194 in Constitution of India

The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.

No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.

No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of a House of such a Legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.

Explanation:

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

https://www.pngrb.gov.in/eng-web/function.html

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates storage, distribution, and marketing of petroleum products (II & III), but not production of crude oil or natural gas (I & IV), which are upstream activities.

Explanation:

The statement “Sedition has become my religion” was famously made by Mahatma Gandhi at the time of his involvement in the Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) and other anti-government protests. In 1922, Gandhi was charged with sedition for his actions. He also declared that British rule in India was a curse and he was determined to destroy the system of government, viewing this act of resistance as his religion. 

Explanation:

This mesmerizing sculpture, famously known as ‘The Dancing Girl,’ is one of the highest achievements of the artists of Mohenjodaro. The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a sculpture made of bronze. It belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization and dates back to circa 2500 BCE. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width and 2.5 cm in depth. Presently, it is on display in the Indus Valley Civilization gallery in the National Museum, New Delhi.

Link: https://indianculture.gov.in/artefacts-museums/dancing-girl#:~:text=The%20’Dancing%20Girl’%20is%20a,the%20National%20Museum%2C%20New%20Delhi.

Supplementary Notes:

This free-standing nude female figure is dated to c. 2500 B.C.E. Its site of origin, Mohenjo-daro, was an important prehistoric city from the Indus Valley civilization (sometimes referred to as the Harappan civilization), and was known for its well-planned cities, large-scale architecture, and one of the earliest urban sanitation systems in the world. Named after the Indus River, the Indus Valley civilization encompassed a vast swath of present-day Pakistan and northwestern India. 

The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a sculpture made of bronze. It belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization and dates back to circa 2500 BCE.

This small bronze statuette (only 4 inches in height), depicts a nude young woman, with a coiled hairstyle and bangles adorning her arms. 

The figure stands with her feet apart and her weight distributed unevenly (often referred to by art historians as contrapposto). She props one arm at her waist and her other arm hangs by her side. 

The title of the sculpture, Dancing Girl, comes from the archaeologist who unearthed it in 1926 who thought the ancient figure recalled images of dancing nautch girls (female dancers who often performed at royal courts and in salons, especially in colonial India).  

Explanation:

• The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on February 4, 1922, in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh). During a protest, a group of satyagrahis clashed with police, which escalated into violence. A police station was set on fire, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.
• Following the incident, 172 people were arrested, and 151 of them were put on trial for murder under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code.
• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and freedom fighter, volunteered to defend the accused in the Gorakhpur Sessions Court, along with Krishna Kant Malaviya (his son and also a legal professional).
• Due to their legal efforts, the sentences of many were commuted, and a significant number were acquitted. Malaviya’s arguments in court are considered one of his most celebrated legal interventions in the freedom movement.
• Other options are incorrect:
  • C R. Das was active in Bengal and was not involved in this case.
  • Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami were involved in anti-Rowlatt Act protests and the Khilafat movement, not this trial.
  • A. Jinnah was not associated with the Chauri Chaura incident or its aftermath.

Link: https://www.gandhiheritageportal.org

Supplementary Notes

• The historical Chauri Chaura incident occurred on Feburary 4, 1922 at Gorakhpur (Uttar Pradesh).
• The incident occurred in Chauri Chaura town of Gorakhpur district of the United Province (Uttar Pradesh) in British India.
• A large group of protesters, participating in the Non-cooperation Movement, clashed with police, who opened fire.
• In retaliation the demonstrators attacked and set fire to a police station, killing all of its occupants.
  • The incident led to the deaths of three civilians and 23 policemen.

Background of the Incident

A few days before the February 4 incident, police cracked down on volunteers who were trying to stop trade in foreign cloth, and enforce a just price for meat and fish, and severely beat up one Bhagwan Ahir, a demobilised soldier from the British Indian Army.

Non-Cooperation Movement: On August 1, 1920, Gandhi had launched the Non-Cooperation (Asahayog) Movement against the government.

The movement involved a boycott of foreign goods, especially machine-made cloth, and legal, educational and administrative institutions, “refusing to assist a ruler who misrules”.

As the movement gathered momentum over the next year and a half, large numbers of volunteers became active across the country.

In the winter of 1921-22, volunteers of the Congress and the Khilafat movement were organised into a national volunteer corps.

In mid-January 1922, after a meeting addressed by a functionary of the Gorakhpur Congress and Khilafat Committees, peasant “officers” were appointed to fill out pledges of non-cooperation, collect subscriptions, and lead the picketing of shops selling foreign items.

Explanation:

The Poona Pact was signed on the 24th September, 1932. On the 25th September a public meeting of the Hindus was held to accord their support. Mr. Gandhi felt it necessary for an organization to be there, that would devote themselves exclusively to the Untouchables. On 28th September, 1932, All India Anti-Untouchability League was established. Afterwards he changed it and renamed it as Harijan Sevak Sangh. Untouchables were now called Harijans. The Untouchables simply rejected the name. It did nothing to rescue them from the curse of the untouchability. Secondly, the name ‘Harijan’ or ‘the children of the god’ was indicative of pity and their helplessness.

Supplementary Notes:

• Poona Pact was signed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi on September 24, 1932, in the Yerwada Central Jail in Pune.
• The pact is a result of the fusion of two diametrically opposed ideas (Gandhi’s Social Approach and Ambedkar’s Political Approach), with the aim of attaining a shared objective for the upliftment of one of India’s most vulnerable groups of society.
• Key agreements:
  • As part of a deal he reached with Mahatma Gandhi, Bhimrao Ambedkar agreed to have candidates from the underprivileged class chosen by a joint electorate.
  • In addition, 147 legislative seats—nearly twice as many as the community award—were reserved for the oppressed classes.
  • The Poona Pact also guaranteed that underprivileged groups received fair representation in public services while providing a portion of subsidies for their education to continue their advancement. Higher-class Hindus publicly acknowledged with the Poona Pact that the underprivileged class was the most unfairly treated group in India.
  • Additionally, it was decided that quick, severe action was required to help politically the underprivileged segment of society.
  • The treaty made the entire country ethically answerable for the moral uplift of the lower classes.

Link: https://www.allaboutambedkaronline.com/post/a-note-on-gandhi-and-his-fast

Explanation:

The Portuguese introduced many ‘New World’ fruits like the pineapple, Papaya, Sapodilla, and the Guava which found acceptance and became part of Indian food culture.

Link: https://www.ripublication.com/ijhss/ijhssv5n3_07.pdf

Supplementary Notes:

The Portuguese also introduced many ‘New World’ fruits like the pineapple, Papaya, Sapodilla, and the Guava which found acceptance and became part of Indian food culture.

The Portuguese first arrived in India in 1498 with Vasco da Gama, establishing a colonial presence from 1505 to 1961.

They established trading posts and forts, particularly in Goa, Daman, Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and their influence was mainly limited to these colonies. 

The Portuguese India era ended in 1961 when Goa, Daman, Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli were annexed by India. 

Explanation:

Supplementary Notes:

• Time zones are determined by variations from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), with specific dates marking these shifts. Daylight saving time (DST) can lead certain regions to alternate between these offsets throughout the year.
• UTC offsets range from UTC-12:00 to UTC+14:00, usually in full-hour increments, although some, like India, South Australia, and Nepal, deviate by 30 or 45 minutes.
• Areas with extreme latitudes are more likely to adopt DST, often lasting about half of the year. This period involves adjusting local time by one hour during spring and summer months.

Link: https://www.worldatlas.com/time-zones/10-countries-with-the-most-time-zones.html

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Anadyr and Nome are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait. However, they lie on opposite sides of the IDL, which causes them to be almost a day apart, even though their clock times may be similar.

Statement 2 is incorrect: When it is Monday in Anadyr (Russia), it is still Sunday in Nome (USA), not Tuesday. Anadyr is ahead of Nome by 20-21 hours. So technically, Nome lags behind.

Supplementary Notes:

Anadyr and Nome are indeed geographically close and are separated by the Bering Strait, a narrow stretch of water that connects the easternmost part of Russia (Chukotka Autonomous Okrug, where Anadyr is located) with the westernmost part of Alaska, USA (where Nome is situated).

• The straight-line distance between Anadyr and Nome is approximately 850 kilometers (about 530 miles), although the closest points between Russia and Alaska across the Bering Strait (Cape Dezhnev in Russia and Cape Prince of Wales in Alaska) are only about 85 kilometers (53 miles) apart.
• Geographic Context:
  • Anadyr is a port town and administrative center of Chukotka in Russia’s Far East. It lies near the mouth of the Anadyr River, close to the Bering Sea.
  • Nome is a coastal city on the southern Seward Peninsula of Alaska, along the Bering Sea.
• Bering Strait: This narrow passage of water is not only a physical separator but also a symbolic boundary between Asia and North America, and between Russia and the United States. In winter, parts of the strait may freeze, historically making temporary crossings possible.

Link: https://www.geographyrealm.com/separated-by-2-4-miles-and-21-hours/

Explanation:

The Self-Respect Movement was launched in 1925 by EV Ramasamy (Periyar) in Tamil Nadu, the movement fundamentally altered the political and social fabric of southern India.

Supplementary Notes:

• The Self-Respect Movement was an emancipatory movement unlike any other. Its aim was to empower individuals and communities to challenge and overthrow the hierarchical structures that oppressed them.
• But the movement traversed farther to nurture rational thinking, inspire subaltern politics, advocate women’s rights and promote social justice.
• Though the Self-Respect Movement is synonymously associated with the Dravidian Movement, there are key but subtle differences.
• Together, both movements continue to guide the political outlook of Tamil Nadu and provide an undisputable counter-balance to the emergence of the majoritarian onslaughts across Indian society.

Why in news?

2024 marked the start of the hundredth year of the Self-Respect Movement.Link: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/keep-the-fire-of-the-self-respect-movement-going/article68687061.ece

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Botswana’s mining industry continues to be a global mining stalwart, especially diamond mining – Botswana is the world’s leading producer of diamonds by value.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Chile holds the largest lithium reserves in the world at 9.3 million metric tons.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Indonesia is home to the world’s largest nickel reserves, accounting for nearly 30 per cent of the global supply 

Supplementary Notes:

Botswana – Diamond Mining (Correctly Matched)

• Botswana has long been recognized as one of the world’s leading producers of diamonds by value. The country’s mining industry, especially diamond mining, plays a central role in its economy.
  • Botswana ranks first globally in diamond production by value, even though Russia (particularly Alrosa) may exceed it in volume. This is because Botswana’s diamonds are of higher quality.
  • The industry is dominated by Debswana, a joint venture between the Government of Botswana and De Beers.
  • Diamond revenues account for a significant portion of Botswana’s GDP, exports, and government revenues, helping to fund infrastructure, health, and education.

Chile – Lithium Reserves

• Chile is a global powerhouse in the lithium industry, holding some of the largest proven lithium reserves in the world.
  • As of the latest estimates, Chile holds around 9.3 million metric tons of lithium reserves, the largest
  • The lithium is primarily found in the Salar de Atacama, a salt flat in northern Chile.
  • Chile is part of the “Lithium Triangle” along with Bolivia and Argentina – a region that contains over 50% of the world’s lithium resources.

Indonesia – Nickel Reserves

• Overview: Indonesia has emerged as a nickel superpower, holding the largest nickel reserves globally and accounting for a substantial share of global production.
  • Indonesia possesses around 30% of global nickel reserves, particularly in the Sulawesi and Maluku islands.
  • The country is also the largest producer of nickel, having strategically banned the export of raw nickel ore in 2020 to boost domestic refining and industrialization.
  • It is investing heavily in downstream industries, including battery-grade nickel processing and EV battery production, in collaboration with global companies.
• Strategic Importance: Nickel is a crucial component in lithium-ion batteries, especially for higher energy density types used in EVs. Indonesia’s resource policy has made it a pivotal player in the EV and battery supply chain.

Link:

Botswana: https://www.trade.gov/country-commercial-guides/botswana-mining-minerals#:~:text=Botswana’s%20mining%20industry%20continues%20to,during%20the%20COVID%2D19%20pandemic.

Chile: https://globalcenters.columbia.edu/news/journey-through-chiles-lithium-landscape

Indonesia: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/mining/booming-indonesian-nickel-industry-faces-challenges-ahead

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Mallorca, or Majorca, is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, and the seventh largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.
• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Normandy is situated in north-west France, in Europe, close to the French capital Paris.
• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Sardinia is an island country in the western Mediterranean, located between Corsica, the Italian peninsula, Sicily, North Africa, and the Balearic Islands.

Supplementary Notes:

It lies between Corsica (north), the Italian peninsula (east), Sicily (south), and the Balearic Islands (west).

Mallorca (or Majorca) is indeed the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are autonomous islands of Spain, located in the western Mediterranean Sea.

• It is part of Spain, not a separate country or entity.

It ranks seventh in size among Mediterranean islands (after islands like Sicily, Sardinia, Cyprus, etc.).

Normandy

• Normandy is a region in northwestern France, situated along the English Channel.

• It is close to Paris, though not immediately adjacent.

It is in Europe and well-known historically for the D-Day landings during World War II.

Sardinia

• Sardinia is not an island country.

• It is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea (after Sicily) and is an autonomous region of Italy, with its own regional government.